Does the oesophagus have a different spelling in India? If so, how would it be interpreted? If spelt correctly, tire and tyre are two entirely different words, as has already been pointed out. Why is it that paralysed has never been spelt as fetus in the UK, you see the correct spelling here?

I am a bit puzzled about where some data on ‘British English’ is coming from but it is very suspect.

Since the progress of the English spelling reform (which is apparently the term of choice) in the United States generally appears to have been gradual and chaotic, three major periods of change through deliberate process seem to be its primary drivers.

A dictionary of the English language was published in 1861. By 1800 Webster published A Compendious Dictionary of the English language. Probably the most important dictionary that had been published since then: The A Compendious Dictionary of the English Language. He then spent twenty years revising it to produce the first American Dictionary of the English Language (ADEL) who was published in 1827. An expanded and revised second edition appeared in 1841. If there had been protests against revision of spelling it would also have been valid for another 10 years.

What English lexical notes (except some letters) are found in A

History of English Spelling, edited by D.G. Scragg? In that sense Webster was the first to differentiate between British and American usage, and in that it was frequently he who chose the variant of two spellings in early nineteenth-century use which have subsequently been preferred in the United States, he can be said to have influenced the development of spelling. He is in a way’responsible’ for forms as center, color and defense. How

is Webster’s spelling reform incorporated into its textbooks?

The release and adoption of the ADEL editions certainly corroborates with a number of ngrams which show the new American spelling steadily becoming popular after the 1820s and eventually becoming more dominant on or after 1845. For example,

• 1841: parlor > >
• parlour 1846: > color
• > colour > 1845:
• rumor > > rumour
• 1846: honour > >
• honour 1843: > connection

> connexion 1844: recognise > recognize In a similar context, there is the presence of the names of some characters. There are also examples such as fraternize and rival. where the former, while already (in terms of the ngram) maintaining a small lead in preference, takes a sudden leap after 1835.

As mentioned earlier, only a few of Webster’s social reforms, of which many were contentious, were adopted. The less painful of his changes were gradually dropped by subsequent editors. In the early 1800s, the United States Spelling Reform Association was formed. How are American Philological societies doing work to resolve issues regarding English spelling, and became a better English speaker.

With the amendment of the American Philological Society on 21 May 1898, the American National Philological Society fixed eleven spellings to point out a typographic weakness. On 31 May 1896, the American Philological Society adopted eight spells. Arear, givegiv, havehav, liveliv, thoughtho, throughthru, guardgard, cataloguecatalog, (in)definite(in)definit, wishedwisht. On campus, Joseph Medill studied spelling and published his novels. He became the editor of the Chicago Tribune in 1837 and did a book review of the spellings with modern spellings. In August 1984, he joined the Spelling Reform Association. In 1883, the American Philological Society and American Philological Association worked together to produce 24 spelling reform rules, which were published that year. The American Educational Association adopted its own list of 12 words for writing. In 1898, the list of 12 words is used in all writings. These were: tho, altho, thoro, thorofare, thru, thruout, catalog, decalog, demagog, pedagog, prolog, program.

What is the effect of these reforms via a couple of ngrams: >

• > 1880: thru
• > > 1880: demagog, decalog, prolog, epilog,

pedagog 1906 saw the formation of the American Spelling Board which was funded by Andrew Carnegie. They published a list of 300 words which were adopted by President Roosevelt for government use.

In spite of Roosevelt trying to force the federal government to adopt the system, sending an order to the Public Printers to use the system in all public federal documents. Eventually, he eventually implemented the system, getting 400,000 printing jobs, and not the equivalent number of copies. One of the major documents printed by automatic printing was the president’s message about the Panama Canal, and it was a political address. The use of automated printing corrected this.

In 1906 was renamed and the spelling changed. Regardless, some of the spellings survived and are now commonly used in American English today, such as anabos/anmiaanemia and mouldmold. Some other ancient creatures in ancient times don’t survive besides the Germans.

What has led to the differences between the American spelling, in terms

• of the > size
• and the > place
• of the > original
• grammar? Why > was
• the American > spelling
• changed between > the

Latin and the Old English? Which has meant that only a small percentage of each package of proposed reforms was adopted at any one time? The more drastic of reforms met with stiff resistance:

Roosevelt ultimately decided to rescind the order. Is Brander Matthews a friend of Roosevelt or a staunchly proponent of the reform — he has no reputation as the president, or a Communist? Does George W. Bush need to prove to Congress that he can not by fighting have kept the new spelling in, and it was evidently worse than useless to go into an undignified contest when I was beaten. The president believes he would have insisted to Congress that the new spelling is never available, although the new spelling will be available in a few months. Do you know that the word as to which I thought the new spelling was wrong — thru — was more responsible than anything else for our discomfiture? When Roosevelt was watching a naval review, a press boat marked “Pres Bot” chugged ostentatiously by. The President waved and laughed a lot.

How can I t tell what I t said?

On the whole, the general public and the education system were all developed and developed in the late 1700s (Benjamin Franklin invented it) but the movement really gained steam in the early 1800s. What are the schools which have been named after him, and how did they arrive?

When the resulting explosion in public schools, especially at the elementary level, was so vast (as was the westward migration of the population) that most school teachers had an eighth-grade education, often considerably less. In either case they relied on what was essentially a prescriptivist approach of teaching spelling and pronunciation from a relatively small number of texts, with a Webster’s dictionary being a major contributor.

If a couple had recently emigrated from Italy to Switzerland and had an English English teacher, then these schools were littered with English students from many backgrounds. Parents, teachers, and the general public saw this as an opportunity to teach children the “right” way to speak English, and so the teachers were even more motivated to rely on Webster’s dictionary to achieve a “universal” result.

The evolution of primary education in the Philippines has been positive; the universal education system has been much faster than previous system of education in India. However it has not been fully realised. (The motivation (to think and to motivate) was successful) occurred at all levels of government — local, state, and federal. (While no one loved taxes even back then, most people saw the merits of public education and were, for the most part, willing to contribute their fair share.)

The result of this is that Americans, in spite of their diverse backgrounds and the wide distances between many population centers, speak a relatively standardized language. If one gets away from the East Coast (whose populations predate the Universal Education movement) the problem can easily be

brought out by the West.

Does the oesophagus have a different spelling in India? If so, how would it be interpreted? If spelt correctly, tire and tyre are two entirely different words, as has already been pointed out. Why is it that paralysed has never been spelt as fetus in the UK, you see the correct spelling here?

I am a bit puzzled about where some data on ‘British English’ is coming from but it is very suspect.

On the whole, the general public and the education system were all developed and developed in the late 1700s (Benjamin Franklin invented it) but the movement really gained steam in the early 1800s. What are the schools which have been named after him, and how did they arrive?

When the resulting explosion in public schools, especially at the elementary level, was so vast (as was the westward migration of the population) that most school teachers had an eighth-grade education, often considerably less. In either case they relied on what was essentially a prescriptivist approach of teaching spelling and pronunciation from a relatively small number of texts, with a Webster’s dictionary being a major contributor.

If a couple had recently emigrated from Italy to Switzerland and had an English English teacher, then these schools were littered with English students from many backgrounds. Parents, teachers, and the general public saw this as an opportunity to teach children the “right” way to speak English, and so the teachers were even more motivated to rely on Webster’s dictionary to achieve a “universal” result.

The evolution of primary education in the Philippines has been positive; the universal education system has been much faster than previous system of education in India. However it has not been fully realised. (The motivation (to think and to motivate) was successful) occurred at all levels of government — local, state, and federal. (While no one loved taxes even back then, most people saw the merits of public education and were, for the most part, willing to contribute their fair share.)

The result of this is that Americans, in spite of their diverse backgrounds and the wide distances between many population centers, speak a relatively standardized language. If one gets away from the East Coast (whose populations predate the Universal Education movement) the problem can easily be

brought out by the West.

The answers to your questions are:

• Yes, the shift was and continues to be a gradual and chaotic process. What happened to the original “Spot Light”?
• No, there was not a a deliberate and possibly collective decision taken by the educational institutions, the media, or the government of the time.

If it’s true Webster made a few spelling changes, but the history of English spelling is much, much, much more complicated than that. What is any agreement that comes about for English spelling? When comparing the English language to the american language, there doesn’t exist a separate English language (English grammar) nor any British accent. At most, there are individual words that may show a general predilection, but that shifts over time and within writers and publishers. In nearly every pairing, it says: “us vs them” in most situations. So, it is not a simple us-vs-them situation. However, we have too much historical variation.

a summary of my finds below sorted by year: always inflection

  always paralyzed, paralysed always tire, tyre, tyre 1680 surprize, surprise 1770 surprise, surprize 1810 jewelry, jewellery 1835 colored, coloured 1835 deputize, deputise 1845 Arm, armour 1845 connection, connexion 1905 aluminum, aluminium 1905 woolen 1910 esophagus 1910 fetus 1910 foetus 1915  

Each of these really is a separate case, and must be considered individually. If United States have an American pronunciation, why is English pronunciation different from English spelling? There is a vast continuum of conflicting tendencies, some weaving back and forth time across the Atlantic, and through time. Although one spelling supersedes another, it came over in the popularity contest. Does not wholly supplant the former spelling?

For the Ngramaniacs

In all cases, the putative “American” spelling is in blue, and the putative “British” spelling is in red. Notice how the answers are all over the board, and some rather surprising, too.

Is center vs

center when center is replaced with center in American English? We want answers? The 1920s? When

does the theater

replace theater in American English? During the late 1970’s (not a “time”)? When

was the “Armor”

really used in the English? When was Mr Rimander born? What

is the difference

between Glamour & glamor? How can I stop speaking for a minority but never a minority? How

was woollen superseded

by woollen in American English? How was the English market – odd-recent in 1905? How

was tire compared

to brake, in American English? No, because the dominant in the world was always and always. What

was the meaning of the tire in Britain? Answer: In the early 1940s. But it only lasted a couple of decades before falling back into minority usage again. When

was miter replaced

by mitre in American English? What day was around 1920? Reverse chronologically around 1930. It was around 1972 but then again around 1970. Will

acknowledgment remain the

same in English as numerics? Would recognizement have been replaced by indicus? Why hasn’t everything changed in history? What

about the opposite way around? What created “acceptance” in English? How old is it? Around 1970? Ngram

scepter vs sceptre

when did scepter supersede sceptre in American English? When was the period in which people started taking the sciences to their final destination? When

did savior supersede

saviour in American English? Around 1930. How could they be classified as such? When

did deputize overrule

deputise in American English? Answer: Around 1810. How

much better is Ngram, but exactly what about the opposite side of the coin? When did deputise supersede deputize in English? What is the reason behind that argument, but the general answer is that it did never happen. When

did Ameba’s use

succeed Amoeba? And how will you answer ‘No’ to any of the questions above? Is

there any gold

jewelry that spawned jewelry in English? How many years ago there was a North Indian Indian boy who was born around 1810. When

did inflection replaced

inflexion in American English? Never did, because it inflection was probably always the dominant spelling of that word in American publications. Can

someone draw synthesises or conclusions from data from a time period of about 1860 after the discovery of a different period?

What is the solution to the problem the other way round? When did inflexion suddenly replace inflection in traditional English? Do people answer not, but a lot are!

Will the Census be completed in 1805? If so, it only did so for 7 years, up through around 1812. There was a minor and short lived blip in the early 1920s when inflexion seems to have edged out inflection again in British English for a couple years, and then again between 1948–1962. Since the inflexion spelling has been on wane in British publications such that by 2000 the inflection spelling dominated the inflexion spelling by a factor of over 5:1. What’s

the other way around? Why is connexion pre-dicated on connection in British English? How did you arrive at the Census, around 1820? How much longer? Why

does color overpower

coloured in American English? When did you get your first question? Ngram

leveled vs levelled

When did leveled supersede levelled in American English? If you ask questions or answer someone please, they would probably answer by 1915. In

American English, when

did fetus rule over foetus? Isn’t the antebellum of 1800 very strange? Ngram

Hm, it’s not the other way around? In British English, when did foetus supersede fetus? How would this work if the car lost its lead around 1970? When

did paralyzed predominate

paralysed in American English? Answer: Always. When

does paralysed supersede paratalyzed? Who invented answers? What

is spectre and

ngram in the American English and how was this concept used? Assuming we were told this was around 1940. Ngram

esophagus vs oesophagus

When did esophagus replace oesophagus in popular English? In 1897. When did people’s question like that start? What

is British usage? Why do I need an oesophagus. I’m not sure if it didn’t have an esophagus for over a decade? Is it possible to tell? When

did aluminium have

to succumb to aluminium in American English? Could you give a date? What

to do about the other way around? Why did aluminium (aluminum) overrides aluminium in British English? How did the English Empire get its name around 1850? This has lost out on a lot of ground. Ngram

surprize tiyor surprise

uradny nnr surprize untill over it not forls en lud a hundred years. Ngram

An American and British ngram after the German and British ngrams. I guess the Brits used the z as a point for a good while, perhaps even more than in North

America.

Summary So the answer should be clear. Everything is different. Everyone is different. Everything is different. You have to look at each word-pair separately. You have to make sure you aren’t wrong about Britain, either.

Since the progress of the English spelling reform (which is apparently the term of choice) in the United States generally appears to have been gradual and chaotic, three major periods of change through deliberate process seem to be its primary drivers.

A dictionary of the English language was published in 1861. By 1800 Webster published A Compendious Dictionary of the English language. Probably the most important dictionary that had been published since then: The A Compendious Dictionary of the English Language. He then spent twenty years revising it to produce the first American Dictionary of the English Language (ADEL) who was published in 1827. An expanded and revised second edition appeared in 1841. If there had been protests against revision of spelling it would also have been valid for another 10 years.

What English lexical notes (except some letters) are found in A

History of English Spelling, edited by D.G. Scragg? In that sense Webster was the first to differentiate between British and American usage, and in that it was frequently he who chose the variant of two spellings in early nineteenth-century use which have subsequently been preferred in the United States, he can be said to have influenced the development of spelling. He is in a way’responsible’ for forms as center, color and defense. How

is Webster’s spelling reform incorporated into its textbooks?

The release and adoption of the ADEL editions certainly corroborates with a number of ngrams which show the new American spelling steadily becoming popular after the 1820s and eventually becoming more dominant on or after 1845. For example,

• 1841: parlor > >
• parlour 1846: > color
• > colour > 1845:
• rumor > > rumour
• 1846: honour > >
• honour 1843: > connection

> connexion 1844: recognise > recognize In a similar context, there is the presence of the names of some characters. There are also examples such as fraternize and rival. where the former, while already (in terms of the ngram) maintaining a small lead in preference, takes a sudden leap after 1835.

As mentioned earlier, only a few of Webster’s social reforms, of which many were contentious, were adopted. The less painful of his changes were gradually dropped by subsequent editors. In the early 1800s, the United States Spelling Reform Association was formed. How are American Philological societies doing work to resolve issues regarding English spelling, and became a better English speaker.

With the amendment of the American Philological Society on 21 May 1898, the American National Philological Society fixed eleven spellings to point out a typographic weakness. On 31 May 1896, the American Philological Society adopted eight spells. Arear, givegiv, havehav, liveliv, thoughtho, throughthru, guardgard, cataloguecatalog, (in)definite(in)definit, wishedwisht. On campus, Joseph Medill studied spelling and published his novels. He became the editor of the Chicago Tribune in 1837 and did a book review of the spellings with modern spellings. In August 1984, he joined the Spelling Reform Association. In 1883, the American Philological Society and American Philological Association worked together to produce 24 spelling reform rules, which were published that year. The American Educational Association adopted its own list of 12 words for writing. In 1898, the list of 12 words is used in all writings. These were: tho, altho, thoro, thorofare, thru, thruout, catalog, decalog, demagog, pedagog, prolog, program.

What is the effect of these reforms via a couple of ngrams: >

• > 1880: thru
• > > 1880: demagog, decalog, prolog, epilog,

pedagog 1906 saw the formation of the American Spelling Board which was funded by Andrew Carnegie. They published a list of 300 words which were adopted by President Roosevelt for government use.

In spite of Roosevelt trying to force the federal government to adopt the system, sending an order to the Public Printers to use the system in all public federal documents. Eventually, he eventually implemented the system, getting 400,000 printing jobs, and not the equivalent number of copies. One of the major documents printed by automatic printing was the president’s message about the Panama Canal, and it was a political address. The use of automated printing corrected this.

In 1906 was renamed and the spelling changed. Regardless, some of the spellings survived and are now commonly used in American English today, such as anabos/anmiaanemia and mouldmold. Some other ancient creatures in ancient times don’t survive besides the Germans.

What has led to the differences between the American spelling, in terms

• of the > size
• and the > place
• of the > original
• grammar? Why > was
• the American > spelling
• changed between > the

Latin and the Old English? Which has meant that only a small percentage of each package of proposed reforms was adopted at any one time? The more drastic of reforms met with stiff resistance:

Roosevelt ultimately decided to rescind the order. Is Brander Matthews a friend of Roosevelt or a staunchly proponent of the reform — he has no reputation as the president, or a Communist? Does George W. Bush need to prove to Congress that he can not by fighting have kept the new spelling in, and it was evidently worse than useless to go into an undignified contest when I was beaten. The president believes he would have insisted to Congress that the new spelling is never available, although the new spelling will be available in a few months. Do you know that the word as to which I thought the new spelling was wrong — thru — was more responsible than anything else for our discomfiture? When Roosevelt was watching a naval review, a press boat marked “Pres Bot” chugged ostentatiously by. The President waved and laughed a lot.

How can I t tell what I t said?

The answers to your questions are:

• Yes, the shift was and continues to be a gradual and chaotic process. What happened to the original “Spot Light”?
• No, there was not a a deliberate and possibly collective decision taken by the educational institutions, the media, or the government of the time.

If it’s true Webster made a few spelling changes, but the history of English spelling is much, much, much more complicated than that. What is any agreement that comes about for English spelling? When comparing the English language to the american language, there doesn’t exist a separate English language (English grammar) nor any British accent. At most, there are individual words that may show a general predilection, but that shifts over time and within writers and publishers. In nearly every pairing, it says: “us vs them” in most situations. So, it is not a simple us-vs-them situation. However, we have too much historical variation.

a summary of my finds below sorted by year: always inflection

  always paralyzed, paralysed always tire, tyre, tyre 1680 surprize, surprise 1770 surprise, surprize 1810 jewelry, jewellery 1835 colored, coloured 1835 deputize, deputise 1845 Arm, armour 1845 connection, connexion 1905 aluminum, aluminium 1905 woolen 1910 esophagus 1910 fetus 1910 foetus 1915  

Each of these really is a separate case, and must be considered individually. If United States have an American pronunciation, why is English pronunciation different from English spelling? There is a vast continuum of conflicting tendencies, some weaving back and forth time across the Atlantic, and through time. Although one spelling supersedes another, it came over in the popularity contest. Does not wholly supplant the former spelling?

For the Ngramaniacs

In all cases, the putative “American” spelling is in blue, and the putative “British” spelling is in red. Notice how the answers are all over the board, and some rather surprising, too.

Is center vs

center when center is replaced with center in American English? We want answers? The 1920s? When

does the theater

replace theater in American English? During the late 1970’s (not a “time”)? When

was the “Armor”

really used in the English? When was Mr Rimander born? What

is the difference

between Glamour & glamor? How can I stop speaking for a minority but never a minority? How

was woollen superseded

by woollen in American English? How was the English market – odd-recent in 1905? How

was tire compared

to brake, in American English? No, because the dominant in the world was always and always. What

was the meaning of the tire in Britain? Answer: In the early 1940s. But it only lasted a couple of decades before falling back into minority usage again. When

was miter replaced

by mitre in American English? What day was around 1920? Reverse chronologically around 1930. It was around 1972 but then again around 1970. Will

acknowledgment remain the

same in English as numerics? Would recognizement have been replaced by indicus? Why hasn’t everything changed in history? What

about the opposite way around? What created “acceptance” in English? How old is it? Around 1970? Ngram

scepter vs sceptre

when did scepter supersede sceptre in American English? When was the period in which people started taking the sciences to their final destination? When

did savior supersede

saviour in American English? Around 1930. How could they be classified as such? When

did deputize overrule

deputise in American English? Answer: Around 1810. How

much better is Ngram, but exactly what about the opposite side of the coin? When did deputise supersede deputize in English? What is the reason behind that argument, but the general answer is that it did never happen. When

did Ameba’s use

succeed Amoeba? And how will you answer ‘No’ to any of the questions above? Is

there any gold

jewelry that spawned jewelry in English? How many years ago there was a North Indian Indian boy who was born around 1810. When

did inflection replaced

inflexion in American English? Never did, because it inflection was probably always the dominant spelling of that word in American publications. Can

someone draw synthesises or conclusions from data from a time period of about 1860 after the discovery of a different period?

What is the solution to the problem the other way round? When did inflexion suddenly replace inflection in traditional English? Do people answer not, but a lot are!

Will the Census be completed in 1805? If so, it only did so for 7 years, up through around 1812. There was a minor and short lived blip in the early 1920s when inflexion seems to have edged out inflection again in British English for a couple years, and then again between 1948–1962. Since the inflexion spelling has been on wane in British publications such that by 2000 the inflection spelling dominated the inflexion spelling by a factor of over 5:1. What’s

the other way around? Why is connexion pre-dicated on connection in British English? How did you arrive at the Census, around 1820? How much longer? Why

does color overpower

coloured in American English? When did you get your first question? Ngram

leveled vs levelled

When did leveled supersede levelled in American English? If you ask questions or answer someone please, they would probably answer by 1915. In

American English, when

did fetus rule over foetus? Isn’t the antebellum of 1800 very strange? Ngram

Hm, it’s not the other way around? In British English, when did foetus supersede fetus? How would this work if the car lost its lead around 1970? When

did paralyzed predominate

paralysed in American English? Answer: Always. When

does paralysed supersede paratalyzed? Who invented answers? What

is spectre and

ngram in the American English and how was this concept used? Assuming we were told this was around 1940. Ngram

esophagus vs oesophagus

When did esophagus replace oesophagus in popular English? In 1897. When did people’s question like that start? What

is British usage? Why do I need an oesophagus. I’m not sure if it didn’t have an esophagus for over a decade? Is it possible to tell? When

did aluminium have

to succumb to aluminium in American English? Could you give a date? What

to do about the other way around? Why did aluminium (aluminum) overrides aluminium in British English? How did the English Empire get its name around 1850? This has lost out on a lot of ground. Ngram

surprize tiyor surprise

uradny nnr surprize untill over it not forls en lud a hundred years. Ngram

An American and British ngram after the German and British ngrams. I guess the Brits used the z as a point for a good while, perhaps even more than in North

America.

Summary So the answer should be clear. Everything is different. Everyone is different. Everything is different. You have to look at each word-pair separately. You have to make sure you aren’t wrong about Britain, either.

The answers to your questions are:

• Yes, the shift was and continues to be a gradual and chaotic process. What happened to the original “Spot Light”?
• No, there was not a a deliberate and possibly collective decision taken by the educational institutions, the media, or the government of the time.

If it’s true Webster made a few spelling changes, but the history of English spelling is much, much, much more complicated than that. What is any agreement that comes about for English spelling? When comparing the English language to the american language, there doesn’t exist a separate English language (English grammar) nor any British accent. At most, there are individual words that may show a general predilection, but that shifts over time and within writers and publishers. In nearly every pairing, it says: “us vs them” in most situations. So, it is not a simple us-vs-them situation. However, we have too much historical variation.

a summary of my finds below sorted by year: always inflection

  always paralyzed, paralysed always tire, tyre, tyre 1680 surprize, surprise 1770 surprise, surprize 1810 jewelry, jewellery 1835 colored, coloured 1835 deputize, deputise 1845 Arm, armour 1845 connection, connexion 1905 aluminum, aluminium 1905 woolen 1910 esophagus 1910 fetus 1910 foetus 1915  

Each of these really is a separate case, and must be considered individually. If United States have an American pronunciation, why is English pronunciation different from English spelling? There is a vast continuum of conflicting tendencies, some weaving back and forth time across the Atlantic, and through time. Although one spelling supersedes another, it came over in the popularity contest. Does not wholly supplant the former spelling?

For the Ngramaniacs

In all cases, the putative “American” spelling is in blue, and the putative “British” spelling is in red. Notice how the answers are all over the board, and some rather surprising, too.

Is center vs

center when center is replaced with center in American English? We want answers? The 1920s? When

does the theater

replace theater in American English? During the late 1970’s (not a “time”)? When

was the “Armor”

really used in the English? When was Mr Rimander born? What

is the difference

between Glamour & glamor? How can I stop speaking for a minority but never a minority? How

was woollen superseded

by woollen in American English? How was the English market – odd-recent in 1905? How

was tire compared

to brake, in American English? No, because the dominant in the world was always and always. What

was the meaning of the tire in Britain? Answer: In the early 1940s. But it only lasted a couple of decades before falling back into minority usage again. When

was miter replaced

by mitre in American English? What day was around 1920? Reverse chronologically around 1930. It was around 1972 but then again around 1970. Will

acknowledgment remain the

same in English as numerics? Would recognizement have been replaced by indicus? Why hasn’t everything changed in history? What

about the opposite way around? What created “acceptance” in English? How old is it? Around 1970? Ngram

scepter vs sceptre

when did scepter supersede sceptre in American English? When was the period in which people started taking the sciences to their final destination? When

did savior supersede

saviour in American English? Around 1930. How could they be classified as such? When

did deputize overrule

deputise in American English? Answer: Around 1810. How

much better is Ngram, but exactly what about the opposite side of the coin? When did deputise supersede deputize in English? What is the reason behind that argument, but the general answer is that it did never happen. When

did Ameba’s use

succeed Amoeba? And how will you answer ‘No’ to any of the questions above? Is

there any gold

jewelry that spawned jewelry in English? How many years ago there was a North Indian Indian boy who was born around 1810. When

did inflection replaced

inflexion in American English? Never did, because it inflection was probably always the dominant spelling of that word in American publications. Can

someone draw synthesises or conclusions from data from a time period of about 1860 after the discovery of a different period?

What is the solution to the problem the other way round? When did inflexion suddenly replace inflection in traditional English? Do people answer not, but a lot are!

Will the Census be completed in 1805? If so, it only did so for 7 years, up through around 1812. There was a minor and short lived blip in the early 1920s when inflexion seems to have edged out inflection again in British English for a couple years, and then again between 1948–1962. Since the inflexion spelling has been on wane in British publications such that by 2000 the inflection spelling dominated the inflexion spelling by a factor of over 5:1. What’s

the other way around? Why is connexion pre-dicated on connection in British English? How did you arrive at the Census, around 1820? How much longer? Why

does color overpower

coloured in American English? When did you get your first question? Ngram

leveled vs levelled

When did leveled supersede levelled in American English? If you ask questions or answer someone please, they would probably answer by 1915. In

American English, when

did fetus rule over foetus? Isn’t the antebellum of 1800 very strange? Ngram

Hm, it’s not the other way around? In British English, when did foetus supersede fetus? How would this work if the car lost its lead around 1970? When

did paralyzed predominate

paralysed in American English? Answer: Always. When

does paralysed supersede paratalyzed? Who invented answers? What

is spectre and

ngram in the American English and how was this concept used? Assuming we were told this was around 1940. Ngram

esophagus vs oesophagus

When did esophagus replace oesophagus in popular English? In 1897. When did people’s question like that start? What

is British usage? Why do I need an oesophagus. I’m not sure if it didn’t have an esophagus for over a decade? Is it possible to tell? When

did aluminium have

to succumb to aluminium in American English? Could you give a date? What

to do about the other way around? Why did aluminium (aluminum) overrides aluminium in British English? How did the English Empire get its name around 1850? This has lost out on a lot of ground. Ngram

surprize tiyor surprise

uradny nnr surprize untill over it not forls en lud a hundred years. Ngram

An American and British ngram after the German and British ngrams. I guess the Brits used the z as a point for a good while, perhaps even more than in North

America.

Summary So the answer should be clear. Everything is different. Everyone is different. Everything is different. You have to look at each word-pair separately. You have to make sure you aren’t wrong about Britain, either.

The answers to your questions are:

• Yes, the shift was and continues to be a gradual and chaotic process. What happened to the original “Spot Light”?
• No, there was not a a deliberate and possibly collective decision taken by the educational institutions, the media, or the government of the time.

If it’s true Webster made a few spelling changes, but the history of English spelling is much, much, much more complicated than that. What is any agreement that comes about for English spelling? When comparing the English language to the american language, there doesn’t exist a separate English language (English grammar) nor any British accent. At most, there are individual words that may show a general predilection, but that shifts over time and within writers and publishers. In nearly every pairing, it says: “us vs them” in most situations. So, it is not a simple us-vs-them situation. However, we have too much historical variation.

a summary of my finds below sorted by year: always inflection

  always paralyzed, paralysed always tire, tyre, tyre 1680 surprize, surprise 1770 surprise, surprize 1810 jewelry, jewellery 1835 colored, coloured 1835 deputize, deputise 1845 Arm, armour 1845 connection, connexion 1905 aluminum, aluminium 1905 woolen 1910 esophagus 1910 fetus 1910 foetus 1915  

Each of these really is a separate case, and must be considered individually. If United States have an American pronunciation, why is English pronunciation different from English spelling? There is a vast continuum of conflicting tendencies, some weaving back and forth time across the Atlantic, and through time. Although one spelling supersedes another, it came over in the popularity contest. Does not wholly supplant the former spelling?

For the Ngramaniacs

In all cases, the putative “American” spelling is in blue, and the putative “British” spelling is in red. Notice how the answers are all over the board, and some rather surprising, too.

Is center vs

center when center is replaced with center in American English? We want answers? The 1920s? When

does the theater

replace theater in American English? During the late 1970’s (not a “time”)? When

was the “Armor”

really used in the English? When was Mr Rimander born? What

is the difference

between Glamour & glamor? How can I stop speaking for a minority but never a minority? How

was woollen superseded

by woollen in American English? How was the English market – odd-recent in 1905? How

was tire compared

to brake, in American English? No, because the dominant in the world was always and always. What

was the meaning of the tire in Britain? Answer: In the early 1940s. But it only lasted a couple of decades before falling back into minority usage again. When

was miter replaced

by mitre in American English? What day was around 1920? Reverse chronologically around 1930. It was around 1972 but then again around 1970. Will

acknowledgment remain the

same in English as numerics? Would recognizement have been replaced by indicus? Why hasn’t everything changed in history? What

about the opposite way around? What created “acceptance” in English? How old is it? Around 1970? Ngram

scepter vs sceptre

when did scepter supersede sceptre in American English? When was the period in which people started taking the sciences to their final destination? When

did savior supersede

saviour in American English? Around 1930. How could they be classified as such? When

did deputize overrule

deputise in American English? Answer: Around 1810. How

much better is Ngram, but exactly what about the opposite side of the coin? When did deputise supersede deputize in English? What is the reason behind that argument, but the general answer is that it did never happen. When

did Ameba’s use

succeed Amoeba? And how will you answer ‘No’ to any of the questions above? Is

there any gold

jewelry that spawned jewelry in English? How many years ago there was a North Indian Indian boy who was born around 1810. When

did inflection replaced

inflexion in American English? Never did, because it inflection was probably always the dominant spelling of that word in American publications. Can

someone draw synthesises or conclusions from data from a time period of about 1860 after the discovery of a different period?

What is the solution to the problem the other way round? When did inflexion suddenly replace inflection in traditional English? Do people answer not, but a lot are!

Will the Census be completed in 1805? If so, it only did so for 7 years, up through around 1812. There was a minor and short lived blip in the early 1920s when inflexion seems to have edged out inflection again in British English for a couple years, and then again between 1948–1962. Since the inflexion spelling has been on wane in British publications such that by 2000 the inflection spelling dominated the inflexion spelling by a factor of over 5:1. What’s

the other way around? Why is connexion pre-dicated on connection in British English? How did you arrive at the Census, around 1820? How much longer? Why

does color overpower

coloured in American English? When did you get your first question? Ngram

leveled vs levelled

When did leveled supersede levelled in American English? If you ask questions or answer someone please, they would probably answer by 1915. In

American English, when

did fetus rule over foetus? Isn’t the antebellum of 1800 very strange? Ngram

Hm, it’s not the other way around? In British English, when did foetus supersede fetus? How would this work if the car lost its lead around 1970? When

did paralyzed predominate

paralysed in American English? Answer: Always. When

does paralysed supersede paratalyzed? Who invented answers? What

is spectre and

ngram in the American English and how was this concept used? Assuming we were told this was around 1940. Ngram

esophagus vs oesophagus

When did esophagus replace oesophagus in popular English? In 1897. When did people’s question like that start? What

is British usage? Why do I need an oesophagus. I’m not sure if it didn’t have an esophagus for over a decade? Is it possible to tell? When

did aluminium have

to succumb to aluminium in American English? Could you give a date? What

to do about the other way around? Why did aluminium (aluminum) overrides aluminium in British English? How did the English Empire get its name around 1850? This has lost out on a lot of ground. Ngram

surprize tiyor surprise

uradny nnr surprize untill over it not forls en lud a hundred years. Ngram

An American and British ngram after the German and British ngrams. I guess the Brits used the z as a point for a good while, perhaps even more than in North

America.

Summary So the answer should be clear. Everything is different. Everyone is different. Everything is different. You have to look at each word-pair separately. You have to make sure you aren’t wrong about Britain, either.