What should verb be first before subject? (sh” up x”)
I am not an English language student
- but I am interested in a certain grammar
rule and inversion in “only have they” 2 answers. I wish to ask for an answer already here before adding an answer. I have come across many sentences where the subject and the verb switched their positions.
I can’t say that I don’t like apples nor my friend does. Is there any possible explanation? Here the modal verb does comes before the subject my friend.
He is a very humble man. Another example.
What is this rule, and when is it appropriate to use it?
What are the best stories to read about it all?
In English there is an archaic mode of speech where the subject can come after the verb in the interrogative, as in this excerpt from John Bunyan’s “The Pilgrim’s
Progress” (1679) See you yon tree? ’twill well our purpose suit;’Let
us go near; it’s leaves are full and fair,’ It stands
a type of false profession there A similar archaic
imperative (command Form) puts the subject after the verb, as in the King James Bible, Matthew 4:10 Then saith Jesus
unto him, Get thee hence, Satan: for it is written, Thou shall worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve.
I forgot about the standard form of the verb to be. Are you going to
work today?
Are we really men?
Is Mr. President of the United States and/or Vice President of USA?
I understood the question as ask where the subject can come after the entire verb, and not just between the auxiliary verb and the principal verb.
English has quite a strong tendency to have the verb second in the sentence (not necessarily the second word, but the second constituent) Normally the subject is the first constituent that precedes it, but there are a number of other items which may serve that function, and in those cases the subject moves after the verb:
- Emphatic negatives
Is it possible for us to reach it in that day?
At no time did I notice this.
- Other negative polarity adverbs: Rarely
did they come and visit.
I arrived in August and he spoke fluently. Hardly. I reached him.
The above are mostly a bit literary but as you point out “neither/nor does” is normal in speech. You
disagree
In English there is an archaic mode of speech where the subject can come after the verb in the interrogative, as in this excerpt from John Bunyan’s “The Pilgrim’s
Progress” (1679) See you yon tree? ’twill well our purpose suit;’Let
us go near; it’s leaves are full and fair,’ It stands
a type of false profession there A similar archaic
imperative (command Form) puts the subject after the verb, as in the King James Bible, Matthew 4:10 Then saith Jesus
unto him, Get thee hence, Satan: for it is written, Thou shall worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve.
I forgot about the standard form of the verb to be. Are you going to
work today?
Are we really men?
Is Mr. President of the United States and/or Vice President of USA?
I understood the question as ask where the subject can come after the entire verb, and not just between the auxiliary verb and the principal verb.
English has quite a strong tendency to have the verb second in the sentence (not necessarily the second word, but the second constituent) Normally the subject is the first constituent that precedes it, but there are a number of other items which may serve that function, and in those cases the subject moves after the verb:
- Emphatic negatives
Is it possible for us to reach it in that day?
At no time did I notice this.
- Other negative polarity adverbs: Rarely
did they come and visit.
I arrived in August and he spoke fluently. Hardly. I reached him.
The above are mostly a bit literary but as you point out “neither/nor does” is normal in speech. You
disagree
