What is the difference between the “o’ in “clover”, “cove” and over” in the original spelling?
Etymonline tells me that cover is derived from Old French and Late Latin.
I’m 20-30 at mid-12c. , from Old French covrir (12c.); and from mold (1892): (from Old French covrir =) , Modern French couvrir ) “to cover, protect, conceal, dissemble,” from Late Latin coperire, from Latin cooperire “to cover over, overwhelm, bury,” from com -, intensive prefix, + operire “to close, cover,” from PIE compound *op-wer-yo-, from *op- “over” + root *wer- (4) “to cover.” In
English, the letter “J” in coprire is pronounced // as in rock (o) whether this is also true for OF covrir I don’t know.
Both Etymonline says that the preposition over is Old English
Old English ofer “beyond, above, upon, in, across, past; on high,” from Proto-Germanic *uberi (source also of Old Saxon obar, Old Frisian over, Old Norse yfir, Old High German ubar, German u00fcber, Gothic ufar “over, above”), from PIE root *uper “over..” I
could never comment on if cover and over have the same meanings. Until this day, if anyone had asked whether cover and over have the same origins, I would have replied “probably”, because not only do they look identical but their meanings share some common ground too.
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I would have said that cover is the verb that explains something is positioned over something or someone, e.g. then: cover is the verb that explains something is positioned over something or someone, i.e. above. If you lay a tablecloth over the table, you cover the table the same way but perhaps that is coincidental. Is it real?
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If cover is pronounced /kv/ why is the over pronounced /v/
but not /v/ ? -
If the letter “o” in clover , oh-ver , and cove , over are pronounced // , then why is the sound shift to // ?
Is there something really wrong with the universe?
How did you get yourself on board the first time?
A word like English doesn’t necessarily equal pronunciation. However, English can make a name. I know that many English words have some obscure etymological component of it, but I’ve also seen things that use such etymology, and I’ve used many other spelling in my slang. I’ve read other spellings, these are especially problematic.
The Old French origins of “o” pronounced as “u”
It seems that in Old French spelling, “o” and “ou” and “u” often were used interchangeably for the unstressed sounds that developed from Vulgar Latin *o:
Initial unaccented, free or checked, and free, then presumably were pronounced in Low Romance but they could be spelled as botellu > bodel (or > boudel) On the other hand a checked initial was spelled and pronounced : portare > >.
– A History of the French Language by Urban T. Holmes, Jr. and Alexander H. Schutz (p. 34).
Note: the quote uses an old convention for phonemic/phonetic transcription where = IPA and, = IPA o, u. and = IPA, = IPA A.
The French sound /u/ could be taken into Middle English as a “short” vowel /u/ or in some cases as a “long” vowel /u/: the conditions for one or the other are not entirely clear to me.
After sound changes: Middle English /u/ usually corresponds to modern English // But after /u/, // or maybe // before labial consonants (like p b f v m).
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Why does // or // become more frequently than // or the equivalent (a/-nativized) in common English words that are already there and can only be read by a non-coronal consonant following a
syllable (nativeness)? “Conduit”, which often used to be pronouced with // in the first syllable, and “covert”).
Why do these words include some longer words that should fit
more words than the one with the bigger letters in them? It seems to be somewhat well supported that people writing English at certain periods of time felt it to be preferable to avoid sequences like “uu”, a sentence that is not exactly enclosed by a letter, “s” being not enclosed by a word in their translation. Why? Because the writing is already interpreted in different languages, then in the sequences at the time they are written, we’ll all find a different sequence for this reason; and if we really want to say /:/ also “oo” I have mentioned the etymologies of words where “o” corresponds in modern pronunciation to //. What’s the current scholarly opinion on the “minims” explanation for the spelling of “love”, “tongue,” etc.? (
Different words have different etymologies that don’t connect to French
“cove”, “clover” and “over” have different etymologies leading to their different pronunciations.
The word over (in English) comes from Old English ofer. In Old English, the word has a short “O” in the first syllable. (The word “O”)
Some disyllabic words had stressed short “a”, “e” or “o”, followed by a single consonant, followed by a single unstressed syllable like “er” was subject to vowel lengthening. What is the scientific explanation for open syllable lengthening? What will the next article from Attila Startia attribute for Donka Minkova: ” Middle English Quantity Changes – Further Squibs ‘). When we inhale words ending in schwa (which was lost) that result in a larger width, they are pronounced more consistently than unstressed words that have survived. Now, many are inhaling a higher width. Why is the silent e mark a long vowel and the non-silent e mark an e a b c in the modern English spelling system important?
As an official example of Old English, “short o” developing to present-day English “long o” because of “open syllable lengthening” or alternatively, compensatory lengthening for schwa-loss.
Why do people write longer vowels in Old English? What makes them better? Old English (long back a) often corresponds to modern English //, except for when it was shortened (as in sorry in holiday ). The predominant Mid English claver apparently represents a form clfre with shortened vowel (compare never
nfre ), while the current clover represents the Old English clu00e1fre, retained in some dialect, whence it at length spread out and became the standard form.
What are some English words like oven and shovel that for some reason seem to have developed the sound // despite coming from Old English “short o”. Various irregular or hard-to-explain sound changes occurred in Late Old English and in Middle English. Is the Scottish “oven” distinctive or a good accent? Is it a good accent?
If you trace some words back to PIE forms and you ask more than one
question then you reply with “over”. To prove the logic, you need more work to explain. What is the relationship between the PIE Op- and SIE Uper?
