What is a correct use of “no”?

What are some thoughts about formatting documents and think Which is the correct way of doing so?

There has been no historical dig at the pipeline from the start.

Do

they have any historical claims about the pipeline?

A lot of the document uses “There have been no” and instead “I have worked from zero” in the drafts. Is there a proof that this is true?

Asked on February 27, 2021 in Word choice.
Add Comment
2 Answer(s)

The two sentences mean the same thing, both are grammatical.

As for you first sounds less natural but according to Google Ngram it’s actually much more common. I don’t think

any one of them is perfect.

Answered on February 27, 2021.
Add Comment

Both sentences are correct but There have been no historical digs on the pipeline is more formal than There have not been any historical digs on the pipeline.

In Quirk, In A Comprehensive Grammar of the English Language (p783)

states, In all cases, the combination of not and the non-assertive word (any, anything, anywhere, etc.) is less colloquial and idiomatic than the negative variant.

But not always was conversational English used in the UK. There is the suggestion by

Peters in The Cambridge Guide to English Usage (p374), who writes: “… researchers found that not…any was the preferred form in conversational English in the UK, making it very familiar to British ears u00bb.

Why don’t I just feel sad…?

Answered on February 27, 2021.
Add Comment

Your Answer

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.