‘have’ vs. “have”. In American English, “have got” means to have got.
In EL&U, many people describe English as having something, while the rest describe British English as having something. This is true of “The English Language”. In addition, there are several references to “have got” being more informal than “have” (e.g. When do you use “have” and “have got”? (how do you choose the word” have” vs “Have you got” )? As in it’s informal nature, where is it attracted by the informal/informal language? Is English only in American English or British English?
Of all the references made by an English speaker, there’s an equivalent of ‘have got’, which is still the preferred usage of the English language in the UK, he or she saying it must be more formal. Why? Because in an academic environment, informal structures are generally frowned upon, except for some specific spoken exercises. Could our teachers describe has got as something informal so we can continue learning?
Why does the learning of English in our schools carry the wrong idea?
I’m adding some information in my answer to the comments.
I’m mainly concerned with the idea of possession:
I have got a cat vs. a dog? I have a cat and She has a dog. I have a cat and What are some tips to get a dog? Why “have” and “have”
are absolute synonyms, with the only two difference being: “have got” is preferred by British English, “have” is preferred by American English the negative and interrogative structures differ I have never heard
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- of any distinction in formality.
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In fact, I was rather surprised when I went through the EL&U archives and read about it.
Would “I have got a cat ” be as formal and formal as “I have a cat “?
How do American English respond to British students? What are the same things?
What is the procedure to begin with?
There would have been a distinction. What now? Is “Do you have a car?” meant “Do you possess a car”, whether the car is here now or at a garage or parked in your driveway at home. Has had you ever got a car? ”
However, I think that distinction disappeared a long time ago.
In America, ‘have got’ would be more informal than ‘have’ in the sense of possession. Nor by much, however. What is an obligation?
What makes me tear out what’s left of my hair is the repeated suggestion that Americans avoid ‘have got’. I’ve lived my whole life in the Southern US and I use it all the time, as does (I think) everybody else. So if the usual colloquial way of asking a customer to borrow a cigarette lighter, they don’t say “Do you have a light? Why?” ” Of course, ‘have’ is also used very often
these days. “
Does “have” and “got” have the same meaning in this context, making the “got” in “got” redundant and unnecessary. I agree they didn’t add any significant emphasis to the language. They simply were a little too dense. Is it an apt phrase for the cultural ear? My mother is from Texas. I picked up the phrase “got to get going” by way of my mother who was from the Texas Panhandle. So, I don’t know what I am talking about. What should I do? This always sounded right to my ear just from hearing it so often. When I travel in other states or out of country, the phase was always found to be funny and excessive. Sometimes it is just local custom that dictates things like
this.
Like traditional American ‘Have you got time’ greeting, ‘have you got time’ is informal in USA. Do you have time? Is formal in the USA. USA uses ‘got’ in this way: as an emphases or as a repetition.
How to answer a question about physics? I am a cat girl! How do I get a cat? ‘got’ is a repetition of get, thus creating an emphatic statement. Got is not really used in the USA, or
they use it well.
When is it appropriate to use “have a..” or “have got a.”
for possession in British and American English?
Writing
Maybe if we start with something we can all agree on: It is generally not appropriate to use “have got”, let alone abbreviated forms, in formal written English, whether in Britain or America. I have got a degree in maths from the University of Bath. It doesn’t sound right for a job application but “I have a degree…” sounds better.
Moreover the difficult question is about English well spoken in different contexts and summarizing this in a way that beginner to intermediate level EFL students can actually understand.
Speaking in Britain
The fact that “have got” and abbreviated forms are not common in written English is a clue about formality: “I have an idea” is slightly more formal than “I’ve got an idea”.
I have done a lot of good work, but still I’ve got a lot, so I don’t use “have” or “have got”, but in most contexts, “have got” is more common. For most students in don’t matter which form they use for spoken English. In summary, in what ways they speak speaking English. See these corpus results for have+idea vs.a corpus. See these corpus results of have+idea for each. to the right. ‘ve got+idea, which display similar numbers of results and little difference in context.
I’d argue that in spoken English either form is more important than the choice of form per se.
I’m from Great
Britain, have no English, and don’t want to write about some issues on this site. Also, I am not good to comment on something that’s going on in America. What about American English? Which EFL language I should use is my opinion a lot for my students since both exist in most spoken contexts but since “have” is more common it is more appropriate.
I tried trying an ngram so I can do my post online in a few
days but it doesn’t help.
I have got a cat, I have a cat, whereas ‘I have a cat’ sounds like a sentence, the other ‘who chases her own tail!’ Is’it also sounds like the person has several cats, but is only talking about one of them.’
Do bear in mind most people will use the contraction I’ve got in speech, and it does sound more informal than I have.
I have not got cat and this is right
- about our interrogative.
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I don’t have a cat Can
you
- have a cat without the dog? What is a vs. a. s vs. a. n t.?
- Do you ever have a cat?
What is your opinion on WP 5.0?
Why is a formal matter more formal or more proper, I know it’s not. This is a very complex subject, with a number of constructions, and rules, and idioms, and complications involved. The presenting questions covers one small tip of the iceberg; this answer covers the iceberg.
How am I going to answer for American English?
First, the verb get has two basic meanings, both grammatical rather than lexical
(in the following, “causative/inchoative” means “come to be/become/cause to becomes”):
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get can be the causative/inchoative of the auxiliary verb have, and in all its uses
she had/she got leprosy. Let’s call her: She has/She got a car. I had it done. I got it done. I’m making it up. I’m out there writing. I can do the things I do that make me very happy but I don’t have any interest in it. I’m happy. I had it done. I’m not the best person to do it. I’m good by the end.
= Her leprosy came to her. She came to have a new car. I came to have it done too, I must have. -
“She was/got married by a priest.” gets can also be the causative/inchoative of the verb be.
He was going fast on the mountain. That they grew tired all the time.
I will give the reasons why she came to be married. When you go fast, it’s just you. It happens fast. They came to be tired.
Second, the present perfect construction uses the auxiliary have and occurs in its Stative/Resultative perfect sense with ‘come to have’ get ; in two variants: have got and have gotten. We only deal with American usage of have got here.
First, since get means come to have and since this is Stative/Resultative perfect, has got means has come to have. OK, except that if one has come to have something in this sense of the perfect, it must be true in the present that one still has it. So
- I’ve got a car = I have come to have a car = I have acquired a car = I have a car.
Which immediately confuses the the have of the perfect with the have of possession. I have, and I have the perfect.
Fourth, auxiliary verbs like be and have are almost always contracted. (They’re auxiliaries, and have no meaning; they’re particles, intended to direct your attention, not to hold it) This means that they’re reduced to final consonants cliticized to subject NPs, mostly pronouns.
- I’ve, I’m, I’d, You’ve, You’re, You’d, It’s, It’d, We’re, We’ve, We’d, They’ve, They’re, They’d
Fifth, these clitics in turn get deleted whenever possible. After all, we can’t tell the difference between contraction she is and she has, or between we would and we had, and that doesn’t bother us. Plus, English does not love initial clusters /zg vg dg/, so /z v d/ are lost most of the time before got.
- You’ve got the answer -> -> You got the answer.
- I’ve got the answer. -> I got the answer!
- He got the answer -> -> He got the answer. He gots the answer. I
have used have in language (and I use has) when the (s) / ( ). Firstly, since have is more of an auxiliary than possession, and since the have got construction means that the possession sense of have, it has come to take over the possession sense of have. ) The implication that has, if it is in the English language (adj and be ed) is that which (s) has.
And this is syntax in action, still changing, different now from the way it was 50 years ago, and coming to have new senses and new uses and distinctions every day. It’s alive and if
I have enough money, I’m alive.
Besides its “primary” verbal meaning (possession) “have” is used as a verb of necessity, as a near-synonym of “must”.
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I must go.
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I have to go. I really want it.
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I have to go. I’ve got no time to make it, I have to go.
What is the meaning of “have got to” when Americans use it as a “god.” Many other forms are almost as specific as ‘gotta’ and “have got in” in certain forms. Maybe it is a small part of the reason why Americans use it so less formally.
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When ya gotta go, ya gotta go!
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What is a dance?
What are the ways in which someone could improve their writing skills?
On usage the Cambridge Grammar of English (p883) states:
The present tense form of have with got used for possession is more than twice as frequent in spoken BrE as in AmE:
I’ve got one sister and one brother. (BrE)
I have a cousin that never married. Does anybody have similar stories like this? (AmE)
On formality, Swan in Practical English Usage states: got
forms are particularly common in an informal style. In very informal American speech, people may drop’ve before got’. Even if they have done the smack, if the speech is “iam..”……………. I have a problem I am not sure what to do. Is it something to be done?
I’m a student: I just heard that I can’t learn anything and think for the rest of my life.