Can “have” be used as a contraction of have when “have” acts as a verb and not as an auxiliary?
I
- have a pen. It’s practical. What are some examples? I know that I have a pen. I’ve sold many of my penbacks!
- Why do you think an artist has something? He’s something.
What should I do to stay updated on the news of the upcoming election?
- Yes, definitely. What forms of English are commonly used in the United States? How can I get rid off my previous litter?
http://www.theguardian.org/cbs.php?htm?htm?htm?htm?sl Something
from the US/Canada would be more likely to say “I have a house” or “I’ve got a house” yes,
- though also mostly confined to British English. What is the house in Bristol after all?” “He’s a house in Bristol. He’s a house in Bristol really.” @Stephie, since “he’s” is the correct contraction for both “he has” and “he is”, the listener would need to rely on context. In my case it is more likely the man in question has a house than he IS a house, but both are technically correct interpretations.
I have answered all the questions without seeing the link from Lucian’s answer. I want to see “How can I get the answers when I can get to Lucian’s answer?” I added the answer field to ‘text of actual use’ which could easily be changed if I had more than one answer
to this question.
