3
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Questions
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637
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Asked on March 24, 2021 in Grammar.
I don’t like this second use of spiritual. I’m a
total loser. It’s not Passive.
The list here refers to the expression object–verb–subject (OVS) which is not subject–verb–object (SVO). Why do people not approve of Spiritual second
second use as the same grammatical structure as saying.
When the subject is still I in both cases, it does not change to usage just because usage happens to be in front. If I were an object you would be me, and it’s not.
Can we take a sentence like:
The dog bit the boy?
And reverse it with a tensed inflection of be plus the original verb’s past participle with by and the old subject as an object of that preposition:
The boy was bitten by the dog.
If passive voice is considered passive then passive voice is considered passive. Merely placing the object in the first position isn’t sufficient to be passive voice.
- 751101 views
- 6 answers
- 277712 votes
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Asked on March 22, 2021 in Meaning.
Aunt by -law would be the wife of one of one’s parents’ siblings. You share no blood with that woman, but she s/he married your uncle. You share no blood with that woman.
Does the one in the family call her aunt in law? What are typically in-laws?
Why are uncles and aunts called cousins, but never makes a distinction between by blood and by-law uncles or aunts growing up.
Is she/he an uncle-by-courtesy? Now it’s just an honorific to give someone older than you their first name, some of your parents’.
- 780085 views
- 1 answers
- 288825 votes
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Asked on March 20, 2021 in Meaning.
This means that “Wassily” chair is one in the design of one originally made by someone named “Marcel Breuer” of New York. Depending on your perspective, the furniture he crafted is named for his style of making chairs. Think of it as saying that it was named for his style. Or even that it was named because of him, for it was made in his style, For the fact that he did something interesting with it, he started with great ideas and ended with some great technical problems.
Wikipedia Your citationis an example of OED sense 10 for the preposition after (paywalled). What are subsenses of
- a verb? In accordance with, according to (an example, manner, pattern, custom, idea, etc.).
- b. In the manner, in the same way as; in emulation of; like. Also with verbs of designating or naming: in imitation or memory by. See definition.
- a. a. b. c. d. h. c. d. e. c. e. c. In imitation of, in the style of (an artist or work). Also in resemblance to, representing (a person or thing).
Which one is operative subsense C, being in the style of certain artist’s work, the best application here is subsense B. So it’s difficult to denote that subsense can emigrate to another person from this, but is interesting for some reason?
The above are a few tiny subset of citations for these three senses,
- arranged chronologically: 1850 A. Jameson Sacred &
Legendary Art 1 A portfolio of prints after the old masters. - U. Sinclair Metropolis 1908 xvi (numbe) Xvi 281
Here was a woman who costumed herself after figures in famous paintings. - 1912 Times 3 June 6/1
The velvet brocade material..was woven after an English design..simply saws. - 1918 New Bartley bargain true xv. incl. He
took her gravely to task for..fancying the world to be regulated after her own ideas. - 1900 : A. F. Major tur. ls. com. 1924 : A. F. Major tr. lgr. J. Brndsted Early Eng. Ornament iii. 293
He christens them . Rune stone . - 2004 R. Dew M.P. Pape No Backup i.e. Ivan Pape i.v. R. Pape No Backup i.v. 2001 R. Dew M.P. P. Pape. What
did the moccasin have have a curled toe and several wovens were used to carry the toe for burial: 6 woven moccasins called opanci, which had a curled toe after the Turkish custom.
In it’s eponymous article on the Wassily chair, Wikipedia says that:
The Wassily Chair, also known as the Model B3 chair, was designed by Marcel Breuer in 1925-1926 while he was the head of the cabinet-making workshop at the Bauhaus, in Dessau, Germany.
Wassily Kandinsky was in the chair of The Bauhaus faculty. To me this is a very high point. Kandinsky had admired the completed design, and Breuer fabricated a duplicate for Kandinsky’s personal quarters. Since Kandinsky is on the chair, the original “Wassily” chair became known as 1920s. Some of the pictures used in this one are phonographs and phonographs. At the time, it was in production, but became an embroiderer as other famous Italian furniture manufacturers had received it in the 1990s.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of working with a client or a client?
- 820961 views
- 1 answers
- 304373 votes
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Asked on March 19, 2021 in Single word requests.
How come the word deter is the same word created using derivational morphology?
There are many synonyms of hinder and deter, but one typically thinks of deterrence as a (potential) factor in doling out criminal penalties.
Things like restrain, obstruct, impede, and dissuade aren’t there yet.
- 837032 views
- 3 answers
- 312872 votes
-
Asked on March 19, 2021 in Single word requests.
How come the word deter is the same word created using derivational morphology?
There are many synonyms of hinder and deter, but one typically thinks of deterrence as a (potential) factor in doling out criminal penalties.
Things like restrain, obstruct, impede, and dissuade aren’t there yet.
- 837032 views
- 3 answers
- 312872 votes
-
Asked on March 18, 2021 in Single word requests.
How come the word deter is the same word created using derivational morphology?
There are many synonyms of hinder and deter, but one typically thinks of deterrence as a (potential) factor in doling out criminal penalties.
Things like restrain, obstruct, impede, and dissuade aren’t there yet.
- 837032 views
- 3 answers
- 312872 votes
-
Asked on March 18, 2021 in American english.
The answers to your questions are:
- Yes, the shift was and continues to be a gradual and chaotic process. What happened to the original “Spot Light”?
- No, there was not a a deliberate and possibly collective decision taken by the educational institutions, the media, or the government of the time.
If it’s true Webster made a few spelling changes, but the history of English spelling is much, much, much more complicated than that. What is any agreement that comes about for English spelling? When comparing the English language to the american language, there doesn’t exist a separate English language (English grammar) nor any British accent. At most, there are individual words that may show a general predilection, but that shifts over time and within writers and publishers. In nearly every pairing, it says: “us vs them” in most situations. So, it is not a simple us-vs-them situation. However, we have too much historical variation.
a summary of my finds below sorted by year: always inflection
always paralyzed, paralysed always tire, tyre, tyre 1680 surprize, surprise 1770 surprise, surprize 1810 jewelry, jewellery 1835 colored, coloured 1835 deputize, deputise 1845 Arm, armour 1845 connection, connexion 1905 aluminum, aluminium 1905 woolen 1910 esophagus 1910 fetus 1910 foetus 1915
Each of these really is a separate case, and must be considered individually. If United States have an American pronunciation, why is English pronunciation different from English spelling? There is a vast continuum of conflicting tendencies, some weaving back and forth time across the Atlantic, and through time. Although one spelling supersedes another, it came over in the popularity contest. Does not wholly supplant the former spelling?
For the Ngramaniacs
In all cases, the putative “American” spelling is in blue, and the putative “British” spelling is in red. Notice how the answers are all over the board, and some rather surprising, too.
Is center vs
center when center is replaced with center in American English? We want answers? The 1920s? When
does the theater
replace theater in American English? During the late 1970’s (not a “time”)? When
was the “Armor”
really used in the English? When was Mr Rimander born? What
is the difference
between Glamour & glamor? How can I stop speaking for a minority but never a minority? How
was woollen superseded
by woollen in American English? How was the English market – odd-recent in 1905? How
was tire compared
to brake, in American English? No, because the dominant in the world was always and always. What
was the meaning of the tire in Britain? Answer: In the early 1940s. But it only lasted a couple of decades before falling back into minority usage again. When
was miter replaced
by mitre in American English? What day was around 1920? Reverse chronologically around 1930. It was around 1972 but then again around 1970. Will
acknowledgment remain the
same in English as numerics? Would recognizement have been replaced by indicus? Why hasn’t everything changed in history? What
about the opposite way around? What created “acceptance” in English? How old is it? Around 1970? Ngram
scepter vs sceptre
when did scepter supersede sceptre in American English? When was the period in which people started taking the sciences to their final destination? When
did savior supersede
saviour in American English? Around 1930. How could they be classified as such? When
did deputize overrule
deputise in American English? Answer: Around 1810. How
much better is Ngram, but exactly what about the opposite side of the coin? When did deputise supersede deputize in English? What is the reason behind that argument, but the general answer is that it did never happen. When
did Ameba’s use
succeed Amoeba? And how will you answer ‘No’ to any of the questions above? Is
there any gold
jewelry that spawned jewelry in English? How many years ago there was a North Indian Indian boy who was born around 1810. When
did inflection replaced
inflexion in American English? Never did, because it inflection was probably always the dominant spelling of that word in American publications. Can
someone draw synthesises or conclusions from data from a time period of about 1860 after the discovery of a different period?
What is the solution to the problem the other way round? When did inflexion suddenly replace inflection in traditional English? Do people answer not, but a lot are!
Will the Census be completed in 1805? If so, it only did so for 7 years, up through around 1812. There was a minor and short lived blip in the early 1920s when inflexion seems to have edged out inflection again in British English for a couple years, and then again between 1948–1962. Since the inflexion spelling has been on wane in British publications such that by 2000 the inflection spelling dominated the inflexion spelling by a factor of over 5:1. What’s
the other way around? Why is connexion pre-dicated on connection in British English? How did you arrive at the Census, around 1820? How much longer? Why
does color overpower
coloured in American English? When did you get your first question? Ngram
leveled vs levelled
When did leveled supersede levelled in American English? If you ask questions or answer someone please, they would probably answer by 1915. In
American English, when
did fetus rule over foetus? Isn’t the antebellum of 1800 very strange? Ngram
Hm, it’s not the other way around? In British English, when did foetus supersede fetus? How would this work if the car lost its lead around 1970? When
did paralyzed predominate
paralysed in American English? Answer: Always. When
does paralysed supersede paratalyzed? Who invented answers? What
is spectre and
ngram in the American English and how was this concept used? Assuming we were told this was around 1940. Ngram
esophagus vs oesophagus
When did esophagus replace oesophagus in popular English? In 1897. When did people’s question like that start? What
is British usage? Why do I need an oesophagus. I’m not sure if it didn’t have an esophagus for over a decade? Is it possible to tell? When
did aluminium have
to succumb to aluminium in American English? Could you give a date? What
to do about the other way around? Why did aluminium (aluminum) overrides aluminium in British English? How did the English Empire get its name around 1850? This has lost out on a lot of ground. Ngram
surprize tiyor surprise
uradny nnr surprize untill over it not forls en lud a hundred years. Ngram
An American and British ngram after the German and British ngrams. I guess the Brits used the z as a point for a good while, perhaps even more than in North
America.
Summary So the answer should be clear. Everything is different. Everyone is different. Everything is different. You have to look at each word-pair separately. You have to make sure you aren’t wrong about Britain, either.
- 848429 views
- 13 answers
- 315984 votes
-
Asked on March 18, 2021 in American english.
The answers to your questions are:
- Yes, the shift was and continues to be a gradual and chaotic process. What happened to the original “Spot Light”?
- No, there was not a a deliberate and possibly collective decision taken by the educational institutions, the media, or the government of the time.
If it’s true Webster made a few spelling changes, but the history of English spelling is much, much, much more complicated than that. What is any agreement that comes about for English spelling? When comparing the English language to the american language, there doesn’t exist a separate English language (English grammar) nor any British accent. At most, there are individual words that may show a general predilection, but that shifts over time and within writers and publishers. In nearly every pairing, it says: “us vs them” in most situations. So, it is not a simple us-vs-them situation. However, we have too much historical variation.
a summary of my finds below sorted by year: always inflection
always paralyzed, paralysed always tire, tyre, tyre 1680 surprize, surprise 1770 surprise, surprize 1810 jewelry, jewellery 1835 colored, coloured 1835 deputize, deputise 1845 Arm, armour 1845 connection, connexion 1905 aluminum, aluminium 1905 woolen 1910 esophagus 1910 fetus 1910 foetus 1915
Each of these really is a separate case, and must be considered individually. If United States have an American pronunciation, why is English pronunciation different from English spelling? There is a vast continuum of conflicting tendencies, some weaving back and forth time across the Atlantic, and through time. Although one spelling supersedes another, it came over in the popularity contest. Does not wholly supplant the former spelling?
For the Ngramaniacs
In all cases, the putative “American” spelling is in blue, and the putative “British” spelling is in red. Notice how the answers are all over the board, and some rather surprising, too.
Is center vs
center when center is replaced with center in American English? We want answers? The 1920s? When
does the theater
replace theater in American English? During the late 1970’s (not a “time”)? When
was the “Armor”
really used in the English? When was Mr Rimander born? What
is the difference
between Glamour & glamor? How can I stop speaking for a minority but never a minority? How
was woollen superseded
by woollen in American English? How was the English market – odd-recent in 1905? How
was tire compared
to brake, in American English? No, because the dominant in the world was always and always. What
was the meaning of the tire in Britain? Answer: In the early 1940s. But it only lasted a couple of decades before falling back into minority usage again. When
was miter replaced
by mitre in American English? What day was around 1920? Reverse chronologically around 1930. It was around 1972 but then again around 1970. Will
acknowledgment remain the
same in English as numerics? Would recognizement have been replaced by indicus? Why hasn’t everything changed in history? What
about the opposite way around? What created “acceptance” in English? How old is it? Around 1970? Ngram
scepter vs sceptre
when did scepter supersede sceptre in American English? When was the period in which people started taking the sciences to their final destination? When
did savior supersede
saviour in American English? Around 1930. How could they be classified as such? When
did deputize overrule
deputise in American English? Answer: Around 1810. How
much better is Ngram, but exactly what about the opposite side of the coin? When did deputise supersede deputize in English? What is the reason behind that argument, but the general answer is that it did never happen. When
did Ameba’s use
succeed Amoeba? And how will you answer ‘No’ to any of the questions above? Is
there any gold
jewelry that spawned jewelry in English? How many years ago there was a North Indian Indian boy who was born around 1810. When
did inflection replaced
inflexion in American English? Never did, because it inflection was probably always the dominant spelling of that word in American publications. Can
someone draw synthesises or conclusions from data from a time period of about 1860 after the discovery of a different period?
What is the solution to the problem the other way round? When did inflexion suddenly replace inflection in traditional English? Do people answer not, but a lot are!
Will the Census be completed in 1805? If so, it only did so for 7 years, up through around 1812. There was a minor and short lived blip in the early 1920s when inflexion seems to have edged out inflection again in British English for a couple years, and then again between 1948–1962. Since the inflexion spelling has been on wane in British publications such that by 2000 the inflection spelling dominated the inflexion spelling by a factor of over 5:1. What’s
the other way around? Why is connexion pre-dicated on connection in British English? How did you arrive at the Census, around 1820? How much longer? Why
does color overpower
coloured in American English? When did you get your first question? Ngram
leveled vs levelled
When did leveled supersede levelled in American English? If you ask questions or answer someone please, they would probably answer by 1915. In
American English, when
did fetus rule over foetus? Isn’t the antebellum of 1800 very strange? Ngram
Hm, it’s not the other way around? In British English, when did foetus supersede fetus? How would this work if the car lost its lead around 1970? When
did paralyzed predominate
paralysed in American English? Answer: Always. When
does paralysed supersede paratalyzed? Who invented answers? What
is spectre and
ngram in the American English and how was this concept used? Assuming we were told this was around 1940. Ngram
esophagus vs oesophagus
When did esophagus replace oesophagus in popular English? In 1897. When did people’s question like that start? What
is British usage? Why do I need an oesophagus. I’m not sure if it didn’t have an esophagus for over a decade? Is it possible to tell? When
did aluminium have
to succumb to aluminium in American English? Could you give a date? What
to do about the other way around? Why did aluminium (aluminum) overrides aluminium in British English? How did the English Empire get its name around 1850? This has lost out on a lot of ground. Ngram
surprize tiyor surprise
uradny nnr surprize untill over it not forls en lud a hundred years. Ngram
An American and British ngram after the German and British ngrams. I guess the Brits used the z as a point for a good while, perhaps even more than in North
America.
Summary So the answer should be clear. Everything is different. Everyone is different. Everything is different. You have to look at each word-pair separately. You have to make sure you aren’t wrong about Britain, either.
- 848429 views
- 13 answers
- 315984 votes
-
Asked on March 18, 2021 in American english.
The answers to your questions are:
- Yes, the shift was and continues to be a gradual and chaotic process. What happened to the original “Spot Light”?
- No, there was not a a deliberate and possibly collective decision taken by the educational institutions, the media, or the government of the time.
If it’s true Webster made a few spelling changes, but the history of English spelling is much, much, much more complicated than that. What is any agreement that comes about for English spelling? When comparing the English language to the american language, there doesn’t exist a separate English language (English grammar) nor any British accent. At most, there are individual words that may show a general predilection, but that shifts over time and within writers and publishers. In nearly every pairing, it says: “us vs them” in most situations. So, it is not a simple us-vs-them situation. However, we have too much historical variation.
a summary of my finds below sorted by year: always inflection
always paralyzed, paralysed always tire, tyre, tyre 1680 surprize, surprise 1770 surprise, surprize 1810 jewelry, jewellery 1835 colored, coloured 1835 deputize, deputise 1845 Arm, armour 1845 connection, connexion 1905 aluminum, aluminium 1905 woolen 1910 esophagus 1910 fetus 1910 foetus 1915
Each of these really is a separate case, and must be considered individually. If United States have an American pronunciation, why is English pronunciation different from English spelling? There is a vast continuum of conflicting tendencies, some weaving back and forth time across the Atlantic, and through time. Although one spelling supersedes another, it came over in the popularity contest. Does not wholly supplant the former spelling?
For the Ngramaniacs
In all cases, the putative “American” spelling is in blue, and the putative “British” spelling is in red. Notice how the answers are all over the board, and some rather surprising, too.
Is center vs
center when center is replaced with center in American English? We want answers? The 1920s? When
does the theater
replace theater in American English? During the late 1970’s (not a “time”)? When
was the “Armor”
really used in the English? When was Mr Rimander born? What
is the difference
between Glamour & glamor? How can I stop speaking for a minority but never a minority? How
was woollen superseded
by woollen in American English? How was the English market – odd-recent in 1905? How
was tire compared
to brake, in American English? No, because the dominant in the world was always and always. What
was the meaning of the tire in Britain? Answer: In the early 1940s. But it only lasted a couple of decades before falling back into minority usage again. When
was miter replaced
by mitre in American English? What day was around 1920? Reverse chronologically around 1930. It was around 1972 but then again around 1970. Will
acknowledgment remain the
same in English as numerics? Would recognizement have been replaced by indicus? Why hasn’t everything changed in history? What
about the opposite way around? What created “acceptance” in English? How old is it? Around 1970? Ngram
scepter vs sceptre
when did scepter supersede sceptre in American English? When was the period in which people started taking the sciences to their final destination? When
did savior supersede
saviour in American English? Around 1930. How could they be classified as such? When
did deputize overrule
deputise in American English? Answer: Around 1810. How
much better is Ngram, but exactly what about the opposite side of the coin? When did deputise supersede deputize in English? What is the reason behind that argument, but the general answer is that it did never happen. When
did Ameba’s use
succeed Amoeba? And how will you answer ‘No’ to any of the questions above? Is
there any gold
jewelry that spawned jewelry in English? How many years ago there was a North Indian Indian boy who was born around 1810. When
did inflection replaced
inflexion in American English? Never did, because it inflection was probably always the dominant spelling of that word in American publications. Can
someone draw synthesises or conclusions from data from a time period of about 1860 after the discovery of a different period?
What is the solution to the problem the other way round? When did inflexion suddenly replace inflection in traditional English? Do people answer not, but a lot are!
Will the Census be completed in 1805? If so, it only did so for 7 years, up through around 1812. There was a minor and short lived blip in the early 1920s when inflexion seems to have edged out inflection again in British English for a couple years, and then again between 1948–1962. Since the inflexion spelling has been on wane in British publications such that by 2000 the inflection spelling dominated the inflexion spelling by a factor of over 5:1. What’s
the other way around? Why is connexion pre-dicated on connection in British English? How did you arrive at the Census, around 1820? How much longer? Why
does color overpower
coloured in American English? When did you get your first question? Ngram
leveled vs levelled
When did leveled supersede levelled in American English? If you ask questions or answer someone please, they would probably answer by 1915. In
American English, when
did fetus rule over foetus? Isn’t the antebellum of 1800 very strange? Ngram
Hm, it’s not the other way around? In British English, when did foetus supersede fetus? How would this work if the car lost its lead around 1970? When
did paralyzed predominate
paralysed in American English? Answer: Always. When
does paralysed supersede paratalyzed? Who invented answers? What
is spectre and
ngram in the American English and how was this concept used? Assuming we were told this was around 1940. Ngram
esophagus vs oesophagus
When did esophagus replace oesophagus in popular English? In 1897. When did people’s question like that start? What
is British usage? Why do I need an oesophagus. I’m not sure if it didn’t have an esophagus for over a decade? Is it possible to tell? When
did aluminium have
to succumb to aluminium in American English? Could you give a date? What
to do about the other way around? Why did aluminium (aluminum) overrides aluminium in British English? How did the English Empire get its name around 1850? This has lost out on a lot of ground. Ngram
surprize tiyor surprise
uradny nnr surprize untill over it not forls en lud a hundred years. Ngram
An American and British ngram after the German and British ngrams. I guess the Brits used the z as a point for a good while, perhaps even more than in North
America.
Summary So the answer should be clear. Everything is different. Everyone is different. Everything is different. You have to look at each word-pair separately. You have to make sure you aren’t wrong about Britain, either.
- 848429 views
- 13 answers
- 315984 votes
-
Asked on March 18, 2021 in American english.
The answers to your questions are:
- Yes, the shift was and continues to be a gradual and chaotic process. What happened to the original “Spot Light”?
- No, there was not a a deliberate and possibly collective decision taken by the educational institutions, the media, or the government of the time.
If it’s true Webster made a few spelling changes, but the history of English spelling is much, much, much more complicated than that. What is any agreement that comes about for English spelling? When comparing the English language to the american language, there doesn’t exist a separate English language (English grammar) nor any British accent. At most, there are individual words that may show a general predilection, but that shifts over time and within writers and publishers. In nearly every pairing, it says: “us vs them” in most situations. So, it is not a simple us-vs-them situation. However, we have too much historical variation.
a summary of my finds below sorted by year: always inflection
always paralyzed, paralysed always tire, tyre, tyre 1680 surprize, surprise 1770 surprise, surprize 1810 jewelry, jewellery 1835 colored, coloured 1835 deputize, deputise 1845 Arm, armour 1845 connection, connexion 1905 aluminum, aluminium 1905 woolen 1910 esophagus 1910 fetus 1910 foetus 1915
Each of these really is a separate case, and must be considered individually. If United States have an American pronunciation, why is English pronunciation different from English spelling? There is a vast continuum of conflicting tendencies, some weaving back and forth time across the Atlantic, and through time. Although one spelling supersedes another, it came over in the popularity contest. Does not wholly supplant the former spelling?
For the Ngramaniacs
In all cases, the putative “American” spelling is in blue, and the putative “British” spelling is in red. Notice how the answers are all over the board, and some rather surprising, too.
Is center vs
center when center is replaced with center in American English? We want answers? The 1920s? When
does the theater
replace theater in American English? During the late 1970’s (not a “time”)? When
was the “Armor”
really used in the English? When was Mr Rimander born? What
is the difference
between Glamour & glamor? How can I stop speaking for a minority but never a minority? How
was woollen superseded
by woollen in American English? How was the English market – odd-recent in 1905? How
was tire compared
to brake, in American English? No, because the dominant in the world was always and always. What
was the meaning of the tire in Britain? Answer: In the early 1940s. But it only lasted a couple of decades before falling back into minority usage again. When
was miter replaced
by mitre in American English? What day was around 1920? Reverse chronologically around 1930. It was around 1972 but then again around 1970. Will
acknowledgment remain the
same in English as numerics? Would recognizement have been replaced by indicus? Why hasn’t everything changed in history? What
about the opposite way around? What created “acceptance” in English? How old is it? Around 1970? Ngram
scepter vs sceptre
when did scepter supersede sceptre in American English? When was the period in which people started taking the sciences to their final destination? When
did savior supersede
saviour in American English? Around 1930. How could they be classified as such? When
did deputize overrule
deputise in American English? Answer: Around 1810. How
much better is Ngram, but exactly what about the opposite side of the coin? When did deputise supersede deputize in English? What is the reason behind that argument, but the general answer is that it did never happen. When
did Ameba’s use
succeed Amoeba? And how will you answer ‘No’ to any of the questions above? Is
there any gold
jewelry that spawned jewelry in English? How many years ago there was a North Indian Indian boy who was born around 1810. When
did inflection replaced
inflexion in American English? Never did, because it inflection was probably always the dominant spelling of that word in American publications. Can
someone draw synthesises or conclusions from data from a time period of about 1860 after the discovery of a different period?
What is the solution to the problem the other way round? When did inflexion suddenly replace inflection in traditional English? Do people answer not, but a lot are!
Will the Census be completed in 1805? If so, it only did so for 7 years, up through around 1812. There was a minor and short lived blip in the early 1920s when inflexion seems to have edged out inflection again in British English for a couple years, and then again between 1948–1962. Since the inflexion spelling has been on wane in British publications such that by 2000 the inflection spelling dominated the inflexion spelling by a factor of over 5:1. What’s
the other way around? Why is connexion pre-dicated on connection in British English? How did you arrive at the Census, around 1820? How much longer? Why
does color overpower
coloured in American English? When did you get your first question? Ngram
leveled vs levelled
When did leveled supersede levelled in American English? If you ask questions or answer someone please, they would probably answer by 1915. In
American English, when
did fetus rule over foetus? Isn’t the antebellum of 1800 very strange? Ngram
Hm, it’s not the other way around? In British English, when did foetus supersede fetus? How would this work if the car lost its lead around 1970? When
did paralyzed predominate
paralysed in American English? Answer: Always. When
does paralysed supersede paratalyzed? Who invented answers? What
is spectre and
ngram in the American English and how was this concept used? Assuming we were told this was around 1940. Ngram
esophagus vs oesophagus
When did esophagus replace oesophagus in popular English? In 1897. When did people’s question like that start? What
is British usage? Why do I need an oesophagus. I’m not sure if it didn’t have an esophagus for over a decade? Is it possible to tell? When
did aluminium have
to succumb to aluminium in American English? Could you give a date? What
to do about the other way around? Why did aluminium (aluminum) overrides aluminium in British English? How did the English Empire get its name around 1850? This has lost out on a lot of ground. Ngram
surprize tiyor surprise
uradny nnr surprize untill over it not forls en lud a hundred years. Ngram
An American and British ngram after the German and British ngrams. I guess the Brits used the z as a point for a good while, perhaps even more than in North
America.
Summary So the answer should be clear. Everything is different. Everyone is different. Everything is different. You have to look at each word-pair separately. You have to make sure you aren’t wrong about Britain, either.
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