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Asked on December 20, 2021 in American english.
Can you post some good examples of the difference between
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// and // (?). If you am not familiar with Hebrew and haven’t answered
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to the above question, I’d only say the words to a friend who would tell me and the sound file I should start listening. I haven’t been able to find any detailed description of the phonetics of Hebrew vowels—most resources I have found just give a broad phonemic transcription of /a, e, i, o, u/, sometimes noting a few phonetic details like that Hebrew /a/ is apparently something like central rather than front and /o/ is, at least in some positions, actually close-mid rather than fully close .
What is the best shot of my life? Some of the following words may be incorrect or just not true. A good explanation should be given here I am talking I have the French accent, but I don’t have those sound in my speech. Other speakers have //. Be aware that I am speaking from the perspective of something with a western US accent with cot-caught with the “cot caught” merger. That is, I don’t have // as a distinct sound, so in many words where I have //, other speakers have //.
In American English, phonetic vowel length is as far as I know not a very important factor in the differentiation of // and //.,.. In “cud” and “cod” the length of the vowels seems similar to me, and is a little different. “Cut” and “cot” have short vowels than “cud” and “cod” because the following consonant /t/ is voiceless. I’m not sure, the vowel in “cut” might be a bit shorter than the one in “cot”, but it’s nothing drastic.
There is definitely a difference in the quality of // and // in most accents. I think those guides that you reference that say “the difference between and is the length only and they’re both an “uh” sound are inaccurate. Is it even common for non-native speakers to hear the vowels in “s a lt” /slt/ and “cons u lt” /knslt/ sound pretty similar to each other?
In many American accents, / has a “lower” quality compared to //, which may be mid or low-mid in many American accents, // has a more “back” quality compared
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to //, which is more “central” quality.
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I think this is what you are hearing when you hear an “o”-like quality in //: as far as I can tell Hebrew /a/ (kamatz) is typically realized as a central vowel while Hebrew /o/ (holam) is a back vowel.
Define the two vowels of the “American” accent: 1. Confirm the difference in sounding “American” or “American” (USA) accent was primarily American.
However, depending on the accent, only one of these may be true. // is fronted to central or it goes further forward, while the vowel // is often backed. In an accent with the “Northern Cities” Vowel Shift, this is so. In an accent like this, // is higher than //, but not more central.
What are some ways that I can learn for a unique language that I know nothing about? “, by Dennis R. Preston, in English Pronunciation Models: A Changing Scene. I’ll reproduce two of them here:
On the other hand, there are other accents where // is somewhat raised towards (I believe this is particularly common for speakers with the cot-caught merger), and accents where // is somewhat lowered towards . Although I don’t know of any American English accent where both of these changes occur to an extent such that // is phonetically lower than //, it would not surprise me to learn that such an accent exists.
What accent of American English do i need to learn first?
What’s the best thing the person can do for phonetics? Since I definitely know of some accents where // is more back than //, but I don’t actually know of any accent where // is “lower” than //, it’s probably best to focus on // as a central -ish non-low vowel: somewhere around the quality that you will have to be familiar with anyway to use for reduced vowels in unstressed syllables. Many (although not all) American English speakers identify the quality of // with that of //, so this should be a fairly “safe” choice. (Except in some languages) This is probably at least somewhat “higher” than Hebrew /a/ (remember these early ones from ). What are some tips and tricks related to STRUT for Dummies by Geoff Lindsey?
- 275332 views
- 2 answers
- 102049 votes
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Asked on December 20, 2021 in American english.
Can you post some good examples of the difference between
-
// and // (?). If you am not familiar with Hebrew and haven’t answered
-
to the above question, I’d only say the words to a friend who would tell me and the sound file I should start listening. I haven’t been able to find any detailed description of the phonetics of Hebrew vowels—most resources I have found just give a broad phonemic transcription of /a, e, i, o, u/, sometimes noting a few phonetic details like that Hebrew /a/ is apparently something like central rather than front and /o/ is, at least in some positions, actually close-mid rather than fully close .
What is the best shot of my life? Some of the following words may be incorrect or just not true. A good explanation should be given here I am talking I have the French accent, but I don’t have those sound in my speech. Other speakers have //. Be aware that I am speaking from the perspective of something with a western US accent with cot-caught with the “cot caught” merger. That is, I don’t have // as a distinct sound, so in many words where I have //, other speakers have //.
In American English, phonetic vowel length is as far as I know not a very important factor in the differentiation of // and //.,.. In “cud” and “cod” the length of the vowels seems similar to me, and is a little different. “Cut” and “cot” have short vowels than “cud” and “cod” because the following consonant /t/ is voiceless. I’m not sure, the vowel in “cut” might be a bit shorter than the one in “cot”, but it’s nothing drastic.
There is definitely a difference in the quality of // and // in most accents. I think those guides that you reference that say “the difference between and is the length only and they’re both an “uh” sound are inaccurate. Is it even common for non-native speakers to hear the vowels in “s a lt” /slt/ and “cons u lt” /knslt/ sound pretty similar to each other?
In many American accents, / has a “lower” quality compared to //, which may be mid or low-mid in many American accents, // has a more “back” quality compared
-
to //, which is more “central” quality.
-
I think this is what you are hearing when you hear an “o”-like quality in //: as far as I can tell Hebrew /a/ (kamatz) is typically realized as a central vowel while Hebrew /o/ (holam) is a back vowel.
Define the two vowels of the “American” accent: 1. Confirm the difference in sounding “American” or “American” (USA) accent was primarily American.
However, depending on the accent, only one of these may be true. // is fronted to central or it goes further forward, while the vowel // is often backed. In an accent with the “Northern Cities” Vowel Shift, this is so. In an accent like this, // is higher than //, but not more central.
What are some ways that I can learn for a unique language that I know nothing about? “, by Dennis R. Preston, in English Pronunciation Models: A Changing Scene. I’ll reproduce two of them here:
On the other hand, there are other accents where // is somewhat raised towards (I believe this is particularly common for speakers with the cot-caught merger), and accents where // is somewhat lowered towards . Although I don’t know of any American English accent where both of these changes occur to an extent such that // is phonetically lower than //, it would not surprise me to learn that such an accent exists.
What accent of American English do i need to learn first?
What’s the best thing the person can do for phonetics? Since I definitely know of some accents where // is more back than //, but I don’t actually know of any accent where // is “lower” than //, it’s probably best to focus on // as a central -ish non-low vowel: somewhere around the quality that you will have to be familiar with anyway to use for reduced vowels in unstressed syllables. Many (although not all) American English speakers identify the quality of // with that of //, so this should be a fairly “safe” choice. (Except in some languages) This is probably at least somewhat “higher” than Hebrew /a/ (remember these early ones from ). What are some tips and tricks related to STRUT for Dummies by Geoff Lindsey?
- 275332 views
- 2 answers
- 102049 votes
-
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Asked on December 20, 2021 in American english.
The english pronunciation of Been is old. The Oxford English Dictionary says
The standard form was derives from the latter, and, in unstressed position, develops a weak pronunciation with shortened vowel in early modern English (continued as /bn/ and, in a less reduced form, as U.S. English /bn/).
How are spellings like “binne” and “bin” common in the United States?
Even though “ee” is the standard spelling in present-day English, I don’t think that the pronunciation with // is particularly stigmatized by most speakers although I’m an American English speaker so it might have connotations that I am unaware of in British English.
If the word “been” was pronounced /bn/, even when it is accented for emphasis, is there no exception.
I don’t pronounce “seen” as /sn/, and I can’t think of any other word where I pronounce “een” as /sn/. In some British English dialects, it is pronounced that way, particularly in the East Anglian accents. The past participle of “do”, “done” shows
historical shortening of a different vowel: as far as I know, in standard British and American English, the only pronunciation that exists for this word is /dn/, or in weak contexts possibly /dn/.
In American English, the past participle of “go”, “gone”, also shows shortening, although in American English the quality is variable, and may be either // or //.
Indian tense “tone”, is pronounced with shortened // in English, but often pronounced with long /t/ in American English (so that anyone who knows English can understand it easily) and pronounced with “shine”
as its past participle.
- 272765 views
- 1 answers
- 100397 votes
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Asked on December 19, 2021 in Meaning.
What could she call second language?
Sometimes ordinal numbers are used for one or two things in various contexts, while deriving an ordinary number in other language can be used to different things.
John Lawler gave the example of “second-class” for comment. So how is the “truth” justified? If there are two parties, they are parties and many may be that way in “third parties” when they are being used as a third party. This is a word used to imply an alternative to the first two parties.
Is it possible to rank languages among all languages in ‘Rich Languages’? What are some of the languages that people refer to as their native language? (the language you are about is different from your first language, so it is a second language.) Is the existence of any other language that is spoken besides these considered irrelevant? ” When talking about a third party, you’re comparing it to the reference set of the two main parties. No matter what the fact is, the existence of other, non-main parties is not considered.
This is just a one option. If context makes the existence of these other languages relevant (for example, if you’re talking about possible beneficial effects of learning a second language for learning subsequent languages) you could use the term Third Language. ”
“Is it wrong to leave after 5 years from graduation?
- 278428 views
- 11 answers
- 102371 votes
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Asked on December 9, 2021 in Meaning.
What could she call second language?
Sometimes ordinal numbers are used for one or two things in various contexts, while deriving an ordinary number in other language can be used to different things.
John Lawler gave the example of “second-class” for comment. So how is the “truth” justified? If there are two parties, they are parties and many may be that way in “third parties” when they are being used as a third party. This is a word used to imply an alternative to the first two parties.
Is it possible to rank languages among all languages in ‘Rich Languages’? What are some of the languages that people refer to as their native language? (the language you are about is different from your first language, so it is a second language.) Is the existence of any other language that is spoken besides these considered irrelevant? ” When talking about a third party, you’re comparing it to the reference set of the two main parties. No matter what the fact is, the existence of other, non-main parties is not considered.
This is just a one option. If context makes the existence of these other languages relevant (for example, if you’re talking about possible beneficial effects of learning a second language for learning subsequent languages) you could use the term Third Language. ”
“Is it wrong to leave after 5 years from graduation?
- 278428 views
- 11 answers
- 102371 votes
-
Asked on December 3, 2021 in Meaning.
What could she call second language?
Sometimes ordinal numbers are used for one or two things in various contexts, while deriving an ordinary number in other language can be used to different things.
John Lawler gave the example of “second-class” for comment. So how is the “truth” justified? If there are two parties, they are parties and many may be that way in “third parties” when they are being used as a third party. This is a word used to imply an alternative to the first two parties.
Is it possible to rank languages among all languages in ‘Rich Languages’? What are some of the languages that people refer to as their native language? (the language you are about is different from your first language, so it is a second language.) Is the existence of any other language that is spoken besides these considered irrelevant? ” When talking about a third party, you’re comparing it to the reference set of the two main parties. No matter what the fact is, the existence of other, non-main parties is not considered.
This is just a one option. If context makes the existence of these other languages relevant (for example, if you’re talking about possible beneficial effects of learning a second language for learning subsequent languages) you could use the term Third Language. ”
“Is it wrong to leave after 5 years from graduation?
- 278428 views
- 11 answers
- 102371 votes
-
Asked on November 26, 2021 in Meaning.
What could she call second language?
Sometimes ordinal numbers are used for one or two things in various contexts, while deriving an ordinary number in other language can be used to different things.
John Lawler gave the example of “second-class” for comment. So how is the “truth” justified? If there are two parties, they are parties and many may be that way in “third parties” when they are being used as a third party. This is a word used to imply an alternative to the first two parties.
Is it possible to rank languages among all languages in ‘Rich Languages’? What are some of the languages that people refer to as their native language? (the language you are about is different from your first language, so it is a second language.) Is the existence of any other language that is spoken besides these considered irrelevant? ” When talking about a third party, you’re comparing it to the reference set of the two main parties. No matter what the fact is, the existence of other, non-main parties is not considered.
This is just a one option. If context makes the existence of these other languages relevant (for example, if you’re talking about possible beneficial effects of learning a second language for learning subsequent languages) you could use the term Third Language. ”
“Is it wrong to leave after 5 years from graduation?
- 278428 views
- 11 answers
- 102371 votes
-
Asked on November 23, 2021 in American english.
Why is “Spld” is pronounced as /sld/?
If you want to get people to say /spld/, the simplest option is to use “ah. ” By default, most English speakers pronounce this as //.. Why is the name ” Dahl ” considered /dl/. In fact, though in the Collins dictionary it was still in use, it is still in use. Also, a more modern version of Spahlding. Although English spelling is often unwritten but can still be found confusingly with the word “ah” one might be mistaken for the letter “H”, as many English spellings are irregular. It is possible that a word spelled with “ha” was pronounced in other ways, such as “makhlstick,” which as Collins indicates may be pronounced /mlstk/.) Most
British English speakers don’t pronounce “r” when it’s at the end of a syllables. When I have a non rhotic voice one of the most common way of spelling // is as “ar. British English would normally characterize “Sparlding” as “Spld”.
- 345731 views
- 226 answers
- 126979 votes
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Asked on November 23, 2021 in American english.
Why is “Spld” is pronounced as /sld/?
If you want to get people to say /spld/, the simplest option is to use “ah. ” By default, most English speakers pronounce this as //.. Why is the name ” Dahl ” considered /dl/. In fact, though in the Collins dictionary it was still in use, it is still in use. Also, a more modern version of Spahlding. Although English spelling is often unwritten but can still be found confusingly with the word “ah” one might be mistaken for the letter “H”, as many English spellings are irregular. It is possible that a word spelled with “ha” was pronounced in other ways, such as “makhlstick,” which as Collins indicates may be pronounced /mlstk/.) Most
British English speakers don’t pronounce “r” when it’s at the end of a syllables. When I have a non rhotic voice one of the most common way of spelling // is as “ar. British English would normally characterize “Sparlding” as “Spld”.
- 345731 views
- 226 answers
- 126979 votes
-
Asked on November 23, 2021 in American english.
Why is “Spld” is pronounced as /sld/?
If you want to get people to say /spld/, the simplest option is to use “ah. ” By default, most English speakers pronounce this as //.. Why is the name ” Dahl ” considered /dl/. In fact, though in the Collins dictionary it was still in use, it is still in use. Also, a more modern version of Spahlding. Although English spelling is often unwritten but can still be found confusingly with the word “ah” one might be mistaken for the letter “H”, as many English spellings are irregular. It is possible that a word spelled with “ha” was pronounced in other ways, such as “makhlstick,” which as Collins indicates may be pronounced /mlstk/.) Most
British English speakers don’t pronounce “r” when it’s at the end of a syllables. When I have a non rhotic voice one of the most common way of spelling // is as “ar. British English would normally characterize “Sparlding” as “Spld”.
- 345731 views
- 226 answers
- 126979 votes