The full stop was used a long time before the sixteenth century, but didn’t have the same purpose – the Anglo-Saxon Corpus 140 manuscript of the Gospel According to Saint John dates from the 11th century and uses the punctus (modern full stops), but has a broad variety of functions than simply marking the end of a sentence and was mainly rhetorical. My question is about the date on which the original sign was used in the 11.11th century.

Is there really a point that we can make that’s useful?