tl;dr: be + infinitive can be used to communicate expectations. Whether it’s imperative or declarative best depends more on context than on particular grammatical features.

Example 1:

It is to be discussed.

In this example, I read “be” as a copular auxilliary verb. In this example, a. An infinitive verb, “to be discussed”, is as strong as its complement. And

do I use the passive verb “discussed” for my work? This reading requires the listener to fill in the agent from contextual knowledge. (e.g. , “It is to be discussed .” This

words would probably be described as a declarative statement of someone’s intent not as an imperative command. Is the same idea “I expect it to be discussed” or “The committee intends to discuss it.”? You

are to

be dressed and ready by 9:00 at present. Example 5:

E.g. In Example 1 the sentence starts with a personal pronoun and a copular “be.” The complement is the infinitive verb phrase “to be dressed and ready,” which is modified by the prepositional phrase “to be up in the morning by 6:30. Though

this is grammatically similar to Example 1, most native English speakers would probably read this as an imperative command rather than a declarative statement of someone’s intent. Why? Context, context, context.

First of all, the sentence’s subject is the second-person pronoun “you”. What is this now situated the speaker as “I.” “Secondly, the speaker has very specific expectations: “dressed and ready by 8:00. What

do leaders expect from candidates at this time? Option 1: The speaker is intimately acquainted with what

the subject is planning to do.

Option 2: The speaker is communicating expectations to the subject so that the subject will plan accordingly.

Where the exact statement comes from and should rely on context. As an English guy it seems that option 2 is more likelier in some aspects.

How can I study algebra by building construction in English?

What are your thoughts on the terrorism case, if any?