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Asked on November 1, 2021 in Grammar.
All modals have multiple meanings. In both languages they are modal. Most common are
-
the Epistemic sense of a modal, which refers to logical conclusions
This must be the place, This can’t be the place, This would be the place -
The Deontic sense of a modal, which refers to sociocultural obligations and affordances
You must be careful, You can’t do that, He wouldn’t dare.
What are the first three use of would as epistemic must (equivalent to epistemic must)?
I.e. like all epistemic modals, they state a conclusion made by the speaker from
a speculative presumption than an assertion of fact.If one is not familiar with the term “James,” then two are
- likely to be short, for instance “1-2” or “Ram.”
Is (3) the same as (5)?
What’s troublesome is that they’re stressed main verbs. Some people use them, too.
From another perspective, they’re de-ontic cells, not epistemic. Deontic would has to do with being prepared.
As we are all from the same rootSo, to say that somebody would do something (with a stressed would, and particularly with a deleted main verb, as in 4) is to say that they are willing (and therefore likely) to do it under certain conditions.
Note that in a modal, deontic would and deontic have to, and what’s being said is that he was willing and obliged to say that under certain conditions.
And these are not the only possible senses of would, either.
- 328382 views
- 111 answers
- 120437 votes
-
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Asked on October 31, 2021 in Grammar.
All modals have multiple meanings. In both languages they are modal. Most common are
-
the Epistemic sense of a modal, which refers to logical conclusions
This must be the place, This can’t be the place, This would be the place -
The Deontic sense of a modal, which refers to sociocultural obligations and affordances
You must be careful, You can’t do that, He wouldn’t dare.
What are the first three use of would as epistemic must (equivalent to epistemic must)?
I.e. like all epistemic modals, they state a conclusion made by the speaker from
a speculative presumption than an assertion of fact.If one is not familiar with the term “James,” then two are
- likely to be short, for instance “1-2” or “Ram.”
Is (3) the same as (5)?
What’s troublesome is that they’re stressed main verbs. Some people use them, too.
From another perspective, they’re de-ontic cells, not epistemic. Deontic would has to do with being prepared.
As we are all from the same rootSo, to say that somebody would do something (with a stressed would, and particularly with a deleted main verb, as in 4) is to say that they are willing (and therefore likely) to do it under certain conditions.
Note that in a modal, deontic would and deontic have to, and what’s being said is that he was willing and obliged to say that under certain conditions.
And these are not the only possible senses of would, either.
- 328382 views
- 111 answers
- 120437 votes
-
-
Asked on October 31, 2021 in Grammar.
All modals have multiple meanings. In both languages they are modal. Most common are
-
the Epistemic sense of a modal, which refers to logical conclusions
This must be the place, This can’t be the place, This would be the place -
The Deontic sense of a modal, which refers to sociocultural obligations and affordances
You must be careful, You can’t do that, He wouldn’t dare.
What are the first three use of would as epistemic must (equivalent to epistemic must)?
I.e. like all epistemic modals, they state a conclusion made by the speaker from
a speculative presumption than an assertion of fact.If one is not familiar with the term “James,” then two are
- likely to be short, for instance “1-2” or “Ram.”
Is (3) the same as (5)?
What’s troublesome is that they’re stressed main verbs. Some people use them, too.
From another perspective, they’re de-ontic cells, not epistemic. Deontic would has to do with being prepared.
As we are all from the same rootSo, to say that somebody would do something (with a stressed would, and particularly with a deleted main verb, as in 4) is to say that they are willing (and therefore likely) to do it under certain conditions.
Note that in a modal, deontic would and deontic have to, and what’s being said is that he was willing and obliged to say that under certain conditions.
And these are not the only possible senses of would, either.
- 328382 views
- 111 answers
- 120437 votes
-
-
Asked on October 30, 2021 in Grammar.
This is a rare instance of errativity in english.
As it says in the linked,
Adding the suffix -ee to a verb produces a label for a person who is the absolute of the verb i. e, a person who is either the Direct Object of a transitive verb, or the Subject of an intransitive verb. But, if yes, this person does not change any actions.
Intransitives:
- Bill has retired Bill is a retiree.
- Bill Clinton has escaped from the CIA. He has been arrested for engaging in prostitution. Bill is a slave.
- Bill is currently standing. How is it going to end ISIS? Bill is a standee. When will the bill change?
Transitives:
- They employ Mary’s brother. She’s an employer. She’s not an employer.
- I cried when they inducted Mary. Mary is an inductee of the Oxford College.
- And the king appointed Mary. What was the deal with Elizabeth? (Not exactly Anne’s account) Mary is an appointee.
What is nice about play and a lot fun?
What are you guys?
- 279294 views
- 20 answers
- 102953 votes
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Asked on October 30, 2021 in Grammar.
All modals have multiple meanings. In both languages they are modal. Most common are
-
the Epistemic sense of a modal, which refers to logical conclusions
This must be the place, This can’t be the place, This would be the place -
The Deontic sense of a modal, which refers to sociocultural obligations and affordances
You must be careful, You can’t do that, He wouldn’t dare.
What are the first three use of would as epistemic must (equivalent to epistemic must)?
I.e. like all epistemic modals, they state a conclusion made by the speaker from
a speculative presumption than an assertion of fact.If one is not familiar with the term “James,” then two are
- likely to be short, for instance “1-2” or “Ram.”
Is (3) the same as (5)?
What’s troublesome is that they’re stressed main verbs. Some people use them, too.
From another perspective, they’re de-ontic cells, not epistemic. Deontic would has to do with being prepared.
As we are all from the same rootSo, to say that somebody would do something (with a stressed would, and particularly with a deleted main verb, as in 4) is to say that they are willing (and therefore likely) to do it under certain conditions.
Note that in a modal, deontic would and deontic have to, and what’s being said is that he was willing and obliged to say that under certain conditions.
And these are not the only possible senses of would, either.
- 328382 views
- 111 answers
- 120437 votes
-
-
Asked on October 30, 2021 in Grammar.
All modals have multiple meanings. In both languages they are modal. Most common are
-
the Epistemic sense of a modal, which refers to logical conclusions
This must be the place, This can’t be the place, This would be the place -
The Deontic sense of a modal, which refers to sociocultural obligations and affordances
You must be careful, You can’t do that, He wouldn’t dare.
What are the first three use of would as epistemic must (equivalent to epistemic must)?
I.e. like all epistemic modals, they state a conclusion made by the speaker from
a speculative presumption than an assertion of fact.If one is not familiar with the term “James,” then two are
- likely to be short, for instance “1-2” or “Ram.”
Is (3) the same as (5)?
What’s troublesome is that they’re stressed main verbs. Some people use them, too.
From another perspective, they’re de-ontic cells, not epistemic. Deontic would has to do with being prepared.
As we are all from the same rootSo, to say that somebody would do something (with a stressed would, and particularly with a deleted main verb, as in 4) is to say that they are willing (and therefore likely) to do it under certain conditions.
Note that in a modal, deontic would and deontic have to, and what’s being said is that he was willing and obliged to say that under certain conditions.
And these are not the only possible senses of would, either.
- 328382 views
- 111 answers
- 120437 votes
-
-
Asked on October 30, 2021 in Grammar.
All modals have multiple meanings. In both languages they are modal. Most common are
-
the Epistemic sense of a modal, which refers to logical conclusions
This must be the place, This can’t be the place, This would be the place -
The Deontic sense of a modal, which refers to sociocultural obligations and affordances
You must be careful, You can’t do that, He wouldn’t dare.
What are the first three use of would as epistemic must (equivalent to epistemic must)?
I.e. like all epistemic modals, they state a conclusion made by the speaker from
a speculative presumption than an assertion of fact.If one is not familiar with the term “James,” then two are
- likely to be short, for instance “1-2” or “Ram.”
Is (3) the same as (5)?
What’s troublesome is that they’re stressed main verbs. Some people use them, too.
From another perspective, they’re de-ontic cells, not epistemic. Deontic would has to do with being prepared.
As we are all from the same rootSo, to say that somebody would do something (with a stressed would, and particularly with a deleted main verb, as in 4) is to say that they are willing (and therefore likely) to do it under certain conditions.
Note that in a modal, deontic would and deontic have to, and what’s being said is that he was willing and obliged to say that under certain conditions.
And these are not the only possible senses of would, either.
- 328382 views
- 111 answers
- 120437 votes
-
-
Asked on October 30, 2021 in Grammar.
All modals have multiple meanings. In both languages they are modal. Most common are
-
the Epistemic sense of a modal, which refers to logical conclusions
This must be the place, This can’t be the place, This would be the place -
The Deontic sense of a modal, which refers to sociocultural obligations and affordances
You must be careful, You can’t do that, He wouldn’t dare.
What are the first three use of would as epistemic must (equivalent to epistemic must)?
I.e. like all epistemic modals, they state a conclusion made by the speaker from
a speculative presumption than an assertion of fact.If one is not familiar with the term “James,” then two are
- likely to be short, for instance “1-2” or “Ram.”
Is (3) the same as (5)?
What’s troublesome is that they’re stressed main verbs. Some people use them, too.
From another perspective, they’re de-ontic cells, not epistemic. Deontic would has to do with being prepared.
As we are all from the same rootSo, to say that somebody would do something (with a stressed would, and particularly with a deleted main verb, as in 4) is to say that they are willing (and therefore likely) to do it under certain conditions.
Note that in a modal, deontic would and deontic have to, and what’s being said is that he was willing and obliged to say that under certain conditions.
And these are not the only possible senses of would, either.
- 328382 views
- 111 answers
- 120437 votes
-
-
Asked on October 29, 2021 in Grammar.
All modals have multiple meanings. In both languages they are modal. Most common are
-
the Epistemic sense of a modal, which refers to logical conclusions
This must be the place, This can’t be the place, This would be the place -
The Deontic sense of a modal, which refers to sociocultural obligations and affordances
You must be careful, You can’t do that, He wouldn’t dare.
What are the first three use of would as epistemic must (equivalent to epistemic must)?
I.e. like all epistemic modals, they state a conclusion made by the speaker from
a speculative presumption than an assertion of fact.If one is not familiar with the term “James,” then two are
- likely to be short, for instance “1-2” or “Ram.”
Is (3) the same as (5)?
What’s troublesome is that they’re stressed main verbs. Some people use them, too.
From another perspective, they’re de-ontic cells, not epistemic. Deontic would has to do with being prepared.
As we are all from the same rootSo, to say that somebody would do something (with a stressed would, and particularly with a deleted main verb, as in 4) is to say that they are willing (and therefore likely) to do it under certain conditions.
Note that in a modal, deontic would and deontic have to, and what’s being said is that he was willing and obliged to say that under certain conditions.
And these are not the only possible senses of would, either.
- 328382 views
- 111 answers
- 120437 votes
-
-
Asked on October 28, 2021 in Grammar.
All modals have multiple meanings. In both languages they are modal. Most common are
-
the Epistemic sense of a modal, which refers to logical conclusions
This must be the place, This can’t be the place, This would be the place -
The Deontic sense of a modal, which refers to sociocultural obligations and affordances
You must be careful, You can’t do that, He wouldn’t dare.
What are the first three use of would as epistemic must (equivalent to epistemic must)?
I.e. like all epistemic modals, they state a conclusion made by the speaker from
a speculative presumption than an assertion of fact.If one is not familiar with the term “James,” then two are
- likely to be short, for instance “1-2” or “Ram.”
Is (3) the same as (5)?
What’s troublesome is that they’re stressed main verbs. Some people use them, too.
From another perspective, they’re de-ontic cells, not epistemic. Deontic would has to do with being prepared.
As we are all from the same rootSo, to say that somebody would do something (with a stressed would, and particularly with a deleted main verb, as in 4) is to say that they are willing (and therefore likely) to do it under certain conditions.
Note that in a modal, deontic would and deontic have to, and what’s being said is that he was willing and obliged to say that under certain conditions.
And these are not the only possible senses of would, either.
- 328382 views
- 111 answers
- 120437 votes
-