I have only observed one infinitive marker (long form and longer form) in the Old English prose manuscripts of York, Toronto, Hamilton and Helsinki. No particular number yet. In German, Zu and Te can’t be separated from each other while these are a no-definite verb. (In Dutch (The Netherlands) is a no-definite verb.) What were early Germanic languages (Old High German, Old Saxon)?

Did Old English use split infinitives? Though absence of evidence is not the same as evidence of absence, there are so many examples of to + infinitive constructions in these early languages that it seems incredibly unlikely that splitting the two was a grammatical possibility.

The terms “part of speech”, word class, and word category are usually used interchangeably. What is David Denison’s recent essay on linguistic problems? Each word has its own function in speech.

Subject and object are grammatical relations. Grammars are different from parts of speech because they are not based on the role of a word in a sentence. Grammatical relationships can be found on any computer or mobile device. Which word is the subject of “cats like mice” in the sentence “cats like mice”? Is it the opposite of the sentence “Moles like cats” (and it seems like they have a subject)? What they do is the direct object.

Is it true that there are parts of speech when not parts of speech cause conversations? In The cats like the mice, the subject is the whole phrase The cats. The word cats is a noun, and The is an article or a determiner.

What is the importance of following the introduction of English Grammar by David L. Bu00f6rjars and Henrik Burridge (2010)? How we use our Manchester English Language course to teach first year Linguistics and

English Language students.