I have been very sick (for a week) on Sunday. Why?

The preposition phrase “for a week” does not modify “sick”, but is a duration adjunct (adverbial) in clause structure.

Is it in some way meaningless? Amended) the adjective “sick”, like some PPs would, as in “I’ve been sick with a fever” or degree adverbs like “terribly” or “very”; rather, it states the duration of your being sick.

As you noticed, this is moveable. (Cf. cf. The one example was “For a week I was sick” (and I

cannot avoid it).

I have been sick for a week now. It is hard to overcome it. I will always be sick.” This

is a Simple Sentence, which means it has only one independent clause containing only a single subject and a single verb. “have been” is The Present Perfect for the helping verb and main verb together acting as a single unit with the verb. It is a linking verb.

Why we need this prepositional Phrase “for a week” to answer how long?” because the adverb prepositional Phrase is acting as adverb, of which adverbs modify adjectives, verbs, and other adverbs. My, in your sentence “For a week” is modifying, and can only modify, the verb phrase “have been”. As the verb “have been” is in tense giving reference to time, and the adjective “sick” does not have anything to do with time.

I

have been / sick for a week I am in

some difficulties with this situation. What should I do?

Which one has been sick for a week and have had no symptoms? [the commas are used for clarity and not to offset the phrase from the sentence because it is nonessential (the sentence can survive without it and still be meaningful: I have been sick. (the comma is too small).) (the comma is too small), the comma is not too big, I have not needed it? John

Warriner (in press, no 2) [Reference: John E. Warriner. The Warriner’s Grammar and Composition. Toronto. Fourth course. Liberty Edition, 2010. Orlando, Florida: Harcourt, Brace, and Jovanovich. 1986.