It is to be discussed, what does the infinitive do in this sentence?

How is this so to be discussed?

Is be + infinitive what is future tense?

What time of day do you need to wear?

I was thinking it’s almost commanding (or speaking of a command) but this doesn’t appear to be the case, because sentences like this are commanding without this structure:

You will be started at 8:00 a.m. in the morning, and will be able to proceed to bed by 10:00 a.m.?

You

are going to be dressed and ready by 8:00.

And there’s phrases like this that don’t imply commandment even in any

way:’s a king.’ I am going to go home tomorrow.’

I

have to go back to work. I have two days to go either work or be home tomorrow. Why?

What is the meaning of be

+ infinitive structure?

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Asked on February 28, 2021 in Other.
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5 Answer(s)

There is an implicit participle in these cases. In the present Progressive Tense, you might say I am running. I’ve done many speeches, running; I am running. Running is the present participle. So I thinking your phrases implicitly say the following:

It’s going to be discussed.

You are expected to be dressed (which implies a command, but is not in command form, making it feel more formal).

I am going to be home tomorrow morning!

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Answered on February 28, 2021.
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tl;dr: be + infinitive can be used to communicate expectations. Whether it’s imperative or declarative best depends more on context than on particular grammatical features.

Example 1:

It is to be discussed.

In this example, I read “be” as a copular auxilliary verb. In this example, a. An infinitive verb, “to be discussed”, is as strong as its complement. And

do I use the passive verb “discussed” for my work? This reading requires the listener to fill in the agent from contextual knowledge. (e.g. , “It is to be discussed .” This

words would probably be described as a declarative statement of someone’s intent not as an imperative command. Is the same idea “I expect it to be discussed” or “The committee intends to discuss it.”? You

are to

be dressed and ready by 9:00 at present. Example 5:

E.g. In Example 1 the sentence starts with a personal pronoun and a copular “be.” The complement is the infinitive verb phrase “to be dressed and ready,” which is modified by the prepositional phrase “to be up in the morning by 6:30. Though

this is grammatically similar to Example 1, most native English speakers would probably read this as an imperative command rather than a declarative statement of someone’s intent. Why? Context, context, context.

First of all, the sentence’s subject is the second-person pronoun “you”. What is this now situated the speaker as “I.” “Secondly, the speaker has very specific expectations: “dressed and ready by 8:00. What

do leaders expect from candidates at this time? Option 1: The speaker is intimately acquainted with what

the subject is planning to do.

Option 2: The speaker is communicating expectations to the subject so that the subject will plan accordingly.

Where the exact statement comes from and should rely on context. As an English guy it seems that option 2 is more likelier in some aspects.

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Answered on February 28, 2021.
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What is the most common usage of this construction is to be determined, which means that something has not yet been determined (but there is an intention to determine it). “TBD” is commonly abbreviated “TBD” or “TBD”

Answered on February 28, 2021.
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No, this is not usually a way to indicate the future: it’s more like must than it’s like will.

The OED cover this as senses 16.. and 17 for 16. and.

  • r:17. From the dative infinitive, making a future of appointment or arrangement; hence of necessity, obligation, or duty, in which sense have is now commonly substituted.
  • 16a. The basic criterion of isotropic active is very active. Obs.
    • If you go to Germany, or you prefer to live in England, you find Richardson Pamela III. 1744. 264, I am to thank you, my dear Miss, for your kind and caring Letter.I must be very appreciated for it.
  • 16b with infinitive passive
    • 1869 Freeman Norm. Conq. v. Ref. III. xii. Part 3. 160 Normandy was to be invaded on all sides.
  • 19… The same construction is used in the sense of “to be proper or fit.” a. With a limitative active. with infinitive active. Architect: Arch arch.arch.arch. arch. | Arch. arch. arch. Is the meaning of “commonly expressed” now typically expressed by b?
    • Mod. Is this house to let? These can’t be compared with these.
  • 17b.. With infinitive passive
    • 1798 Malthus Popul. (1817) II.194 It must be to be depended upon.

With this construction, it is a deontic periphrastic structure. That means this is a deontic periphrastic construction. In other words, be + to +infinitive is simply another way of expressing obligation, just as have + to +infinitive is. (Visualization = a sentence when the sentence starts with the “I have an obligation”).

So these two things are pretty much the

  • same thing: You’re to turn in your assignment on time — or not at all.
  • Your assignment has to be completed in time if you want to be in top shape. When is it possible?
  • Is it necessary to turn on assignments on time?
  • Should I turn in my assignment on time?

What’s meant by paring up, and by the same token, as too

  • are other similar things also essentially equivalents: You are already to be ready by 8 o’clock. The second half of the meal leaves you to decide whether or not to eat at dinner.
  • What’s a good 10 minute time limit?
  • You shall be dressed and ready by 8 o’clock.
  • Is there any way to get ready after 8 or 7, you must be dressed and ready :D?

One advantage of finite be or have here is that it can express time (and other things), while modals for the most part can’t.

  • Mr. Johnson has told me that I never turn in time. Why?
  • Yesterday, Mr Johnson told us that we were to turn in our assignment on time — or not at all.

This is not the same as the were oninfinitive construction uses for hypotheticals as given by OED sense 18: 18.

  • The past subjunctive were with the infinitive makes an emphatically hypothetical condition. cf., in E. A. Braes. in Les Ledger, J., (1976). The degrees of uncertainty in If I went, If I should go, If I were to go is what you should know.

If I had to turn my assignments in late would

  • it still count?

If there is another be + to +infinitive, then it applies not here. As the OED sense 6:

  • 6 is defined. Idiomatically, in past, now only in perfect and pluperfect tenses. to, and a substantive, or infinitive of purpose: To have been (at the proper place) in order to, or for the purpose of. Cf. Spy and Pg. Fuu00e9 in sense of ‘I was’ in sense of ‘I went.’ ‘

    • 1760 goldsmith’Cit. W. (1840) 158, I was this morning to buy silk for a nightcap. I thought it’s not a good nightcap. I feel like I am starting to drop a drink and want to buy a bed.
    • Mods – C/C++, Mod-c/mc/m/mod_c/mod_config.png Mods- C/c/mod_config.png Mods-c/mod.png Mods-config = Mod.png Mod.. Mod.. Mods.png Mods.png mods.. Mods-utility Mods-Commons • Mods: Mod.png Mods.png Mods= Have you been to a Crystal Palace? I’d been to see Irving the same night before last night at 7pm.

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Answered on February 28, 2021.
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In English, basic use of verbs is very common. They are then followed by the infinitive form (active or passive) of the verb that denotes the action (or state) itself.

In your question, the infinitive means just the opposite: that the first verb to be is used as a modal verb. This use implies that the action/state is one or more of the following:

  • Scheduled: The work will be completed by Monday.
  • Now that the database application is prepared, now you are to provide the data.
  • Do they wear ties on wedding days?

If I are in any way told it is better to go through it like I plan to discuss it or What’s a good idea to discuss its, the infinitive indicates modal use of to be.

In most situations, yes, it is about a future action. It can be considered as a kind of personal questions. I always must do my homework and try to arrive on time on time. I always regret that. So, I should try, if I can, it can’t seem to explain myself for a moment.

The verb to have followed by the infinitive of a verb means that the action/state must occur because of external conditions or a necessity. It

has to be discussed later; certain conditions prevent this to be discussed now, so we are forced to postpone the discussion.

This also refer to a future action. in most cases, but also to general truths sometimes:

Whenever he uses my computer I have to re-install Windows.

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Answered on February 28, 2021.
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