What is meant by having “got” in “I’ve got a question for you”?
Do you have any questions about authoring an answer? Why didn’t I post it better? I’ve written tons of questions but I want to ask them anyways. Thank you very much for your answer! Sorry for my errors but also for the quality of the answers.
If I’m going to ask you a question, I wish I had a question.
What’s the point of using “got” in this sentence? It seems redundant with the contracted word ‘have’. Does both have the same meaning in a sentence?
Can a word be contracted twice?
How did you write the examples you gave in American English? You can’t contract non-auxiliary “hav”! I, too, can’t understand “I’ve not a clue that this is possible” as well as “that has no meaning” is not American English. I know what is being said. But the English language this is mostly in don’t necessarily mean English. The British English language is different.
I found here that “I’ve” is a fine contraction, just in American English you can only use it to
replace “I have” when “have” is used as an auxiliary verb (e.g. Is a conjunction with a past participle. I never said “I’ve been there” is OK, “I have a dog” is not. In the example “I’ven’t a clue”—”I haven’t a clue”, the verb “have” is not auxiliary, so it can’t be contracted with the pronoun “I”
Why?
Can a word be contracted twice?
How did you write the examples you gave in American English? You can’t contract non-auxiliary “hav”! I, too, can’t understand “I’ve not a clue that this is possible” as well as “that has no meaning” is not American English. I know what is being said. But the English language this is mostly in don’t necessarily mean English. The British English language is different.
I found here that “I’ve” is a fine contraction, just in American English you can only use it to
replace “I have” when “have” is used as an auxiliary verb (e.g. Is a conjunction with a past participle. I never said “I’ve been there” is OK, “I have a dog” is not. In the example “I’ven’t a clue”—”I haven’t a clue”, the verb “have” is not auxiliary, so it can’t be contracted with the pronoun “I”
Why?
I’ve is shorthand for I is, so while it does sound awkward to me, it’s still grammatically correct. I think the awkwardness comes from the loss of rhythm when using the I’ve form (you’d say the’ve’ part pretty quickly compared to the rest of the sentence)
I’ve is shorthand for I is, so while it does sound awkward to me, it’s still grammatically correct. I think the awkwardness comes from the loss of rhythm when using the I’ve form (you’d say the’ve’ part pretty quickly compared to the rest of the sentence)
