Did Shakespeare’s ‘lawyer’ have a broader meaning in his time?
In Act 4, Scene 2 of Shakespeare’s Henry VI, Part 2 Dick the butcher, one of Jack Cade’s rebels, shouts: The
first thing we do, let’s kill the lawyers.
The rebels bring in the clerk of Chartham, who “can read and write and cast account” (i.e. E.T.Y. & P.E.E.N.P.) (iv. wr. /p.). The rebels bring in the clerk of Chartham, who “can see and print and explain accounts” (i.e. – writing and casting accounts). Add up Accounts (Add up accounts) by default? Jack Cade calls Man’s abilities “monstrous”. In fact, unnatural illiteracy is natural. Will the rebels hang the clerk if he confessed to being able to write his name and not sign by his name to a letter? Was a clerk a lawyer?
According to Lord Saye, Jack Cade wrote: ‘the youth of the realm in erecting a grammar school will very first
be disarmed. (…) So it seems that Jack Cade’s ire is directed towards literate people rather
than lawyers in particular.’ Why does “lawyer” mean lawyer? How do I become more literate than today? If this is true, I will assume that Dick the butcher’s “lawyers” stands for literate people in general.
I consulted several glossaries of Shakespearian or Early Modern English (Skeat & Mayhew’s old A Glossary of Tudor and Stewart Words, C.T. Onions’ Shakespeare Glossary as revised by Eagleson, and the more recent Crystal & Crystal ), but they don’t mention the term “lawyer”.
- Did lawyers have a broader sense of time? Can we explain this? * Sort of that.
Emperor Claudius of Rome legalized the profession of law by allowing men to charge fees for legal advice. Before that, they could only serve in a lesser role known as advocate in regards to Roman courts allowing a “friend” to testify on the accused’s behalf, and that was for the jury only.
So essentially the law was divided into two main groups, clerks and advocates.
In general, clerks were barely literate, but could still draw up contracts in the realm of civil law. Advocates were fully literate and often enrolled in the furthermemt of Canon Law. By the sixth century, advocates had to be approved by a court and joined up in the local bar in order to practice for the first time. These were lawyers in the modern sense.
The legal profession diintegrated during the Dark Ages and reappeared in the twelfth century primarily in ecclesiastical issues. A course of study was created about four years. According to the report.
Henry VI (reigned 1422-1471) was an interesting case. He went to Cambridge and became Chairman of King’s College. In his spare time, All Soul’s College served as his students. He also mentored others.
“As well as being against the hiersy charges and executions supported by the Bull of the Spanish Inquisition (1478 by Pope Sixtus IV), King Ferdinand of Spain did make the practice of criminal law illegal, possibly as a precursor of expelling Jews and Muslim from Spain and as rhetoric for propaganda in regards to heresy charges and executions. In all likelihood all the Spanish people reacted in different ways according to Henry VI.
Ancient Acts left clerk and advocate to be separated based on education and acceptance into the local bar. I’m not sure if the culture in England was different between the English and the British at the time so that we wouldn’t know if there was a difference between the English and the Americans. Both movies are able to charge money. Both husband and wife practiced law. Lawyers who were in the court charged more. Is there any evidence that we know the difference between medical doctor and dro?
I’m hardly a Shakespearean scholar, but it seems he liked multiple meanings in his prose. You can’t get multiple meanings in one word? How possible is it to think like 1. It’s not necessary to know the difference between clerks and lawyers but how it works first hand if you want to perform a job in Law. A lay population? 3. Shakespeare knew that the propaganda in Spain denouncing lawyers of all types (a profession with a high percentage of Jews and Muslims) in Spain ; 2. He understood that some NGOs opposed the Spain propaganda; these NGOs have adopted a different policy that has been introduced by the Spanish government in the European Parliament to protect the Muslims’ rights and the rule of law (for Muslims people may follow a strict code of conduct or not). What is the best joke you have ever heard? What are some examples of the English universities after the fall of Henry VIII by a backlash against
the wealthy and educated following the creation of new universities in England on March 4, 1876? I have spent enough time on this on one day, so you may downvote me if you think I’m completely talking out of my
arse.
- Did lawyers have a broader sense of time? Can we explain this? * Sort of that.
Emperor Claudius of Rome legalized the profession of law by allowing men to charge fees for legal advice. Before that, they could only serve in a lesser role known as advocate in regards to Roman courts allowing a “friend” to testify on the accused’s behalf, and that was for the jury only.
So essentially the law was divided into two main groups, clerks and advocates.
In general, clerks were barely literate, but could still draw up contracts in the realm of civil law. Advocates were fully literate and often enrolled in the furthermemt of Canon Law. By the sixth century, advocates had to be approved by a court and joined up in the local bar in order to practice for the first time. These were lawyers in the modern sense.
The legal profession diintegrated during the Dark Ages and reappeared in the twelfth century primarily in ecclesiastical issues. A course of study was created about four years. According to the report.
Henry VI (reigned 1422-1471) was an interesting case. He went to Cambridge and became Chairman of King’s College. In his spare time, All Soul’s College served as his students. He also mentored others.
“As well as being against the hiersy charges and executions supported by the Bull of the Spanish Inquisition (1478 by Pope Sixtus IV), King Ferdinand of Spain did make the practice of criminal law illegal, possibly as a precursor of expelling Jews and Muslim from Spain and as rhetoric for propaganda in regards to heresy charges and executions. In all likelihood all the Spanish people reacted in different ways according to Henry VI.
Ancient Acts left clerk and advocate to be separated based on education and acceptance into the local bar. I’m not sure if the culture in England was different between the English and the British at the time so that we wouldn’t know if there was a difference between the English and the Americans. Both movies are able to charge money. Both husband and wife practiced law. Lawyers who were in the court charged more. Is there any evidence that we know the difference between medical doctor and dro?
I’m hardly a Shakespearean scholar, but it seems he liked multiple meanings in his prose. You can’t get multiple meanings in one word? How possible is it to think like 1. It’s not necessary to know the difference between clerks and lawyers but how it works first hand if you want to perform a job in Law. A lay population? 3. Shakespeare knew that the propaganda in Spain denouncing lawyers of all types (a profession with a high percentage of Jews and Muslims) in Spain ; 2. He understood that some NGOs opposed the Spain propaganda; these NGOs have adopted a different policy that has been introduced by the Spanish government in the European Parliament to protect the Muslims’ rights and the rule of law (for Muslims people may follow a strict code of conduct or not). What is the best joke you have ever heard? What are some examples of the English universities after the fall of Henry VIII by a backlash against
the wealthy and educated following the creation of new universities in England on March 4, 1876? I have spent enough time on this on one day, so you may downvote me if you think I’m completely talking out of my
arse.
- Did lawyers have a broader sense of time? Can we explain this? * Sort of that.
Emperor Claudius of Rome legalized the profession of law by allowing men to charge fees for legal advice. Before that, they could only serve in a lesser role known as advocate in regards to Roman courts allowing a “friend” to testify on the accused’s behalf, and that was for the jury only.
So essentially the law was divided into two main groups, clerks and advocates.
In general, clerks were barely literate, but could still draw up contracts in the realm of civil law. Advocates were fully literate and often enrolled in the furthermemt of Canon Law. By the sixth century, advocates had to be approved by a court and joined up in the local bar in order to practice for the first time. These were lawyers in the modern sense.
The legal profession diintegrated during the Dark Ages and reappeared in the twelfth century primarily in ecclesiastical issues. A course of study was created about four years. According to the report.
Henry VI (reigned 1422-1471) was an interesting case. He went to Cambridge and became Chairman of King’s College. In his spare time, All Soul’s College served as his students. He also mentored others.
“As well as being against the hiersy charges and executions supported by the Bull of the Spanish Inquisition (1478 by Pope Sixtus IV), King Ferdinand of Spain did make the practice of criminal law illegal, possibly as a precursor of expelling Jews and Muslim from Spain and as rhetoric for propaganda in regards to heresy charges and executions. In all likelihood all the Spanish people reacted in different ways according to Henry VI.
Ancient Acts left clerk and advocate to be separated based on education and acceptance into the local bar. I’m not sure if the culture in England was different between the English and the British at the time so that we wouldn’t know if there was a difference between the English and the Americans. Both movies are able to charge money. Both husband and wife practiced law. Lawyers who were in the court charged more. Is there any evidence that we know the difference between medical doctor and dro?
I’m hardly a Shakespearean scholar, but it seems he liked multiple meanings in his prose. You can’t get multiple meanings in one word? How possible is it to think like 1. It’s not necessary to know the difference between clerks and lawyers but how it works first hand if you want to perform a job in Law. A lay population? 3. Shakespeare knew that the propaganda in Spain denouncing lawyers of all types (a profession with a high percentage of Jews and Muslims) in Spain ; 2. He understood that some NGOs opposed the Spain propaganda; these NGOs have adopted a different policy that has been introduced by the Spanish government in the European Parliament to protect the Muslims’ rights and the rule of law (for Muslims people may follow a strict code of conduct or not). What is the best joke you have ever heard? What are some examples of the English universities after the fall of Henry VIII by a backlash against
the wealthy and educated following the creation of new universities in England on March 4, 1876? I have spent enough time on this on one day, so you may downvote me if you think I’m completely talking out of my
arse.
- Did lawyers have a broader sense of time? Can we explain this? * Sort of that.
Emperor Claudius of Rome legalized the profession of law by allowing men to charge fees for legal advice. Before that, they could only serve in a lesser role known as advocate in regards to Roman courts allowing a “friend” to testify on the accused’s behalf, and that was for the jury only.
So essentially the law was divided into two main groups, clerks and advocates.
In general, clerks were barely literate, but could still draw up contracts in the realm of civil law. Advocates were fully literate and often enrolled in the furthermemt of Canon Law. By the sixth century, advocates had to be approved by a court and joined up in the local bar in order to practice for the first time. These were lawyers in the modern sense.
The legal profession diintegrated during the Dark Ages and reappeared in the twelfth century primarily in ecclesiastical issues. A course of study was created about four years. According to the report.
Henry VI (reigned 1422-1471) was an interesting case. He went to Cambridge and became Chairman of King’s College. In his spare time, All Soul’s College served as his students. He also mentored others.
“As well as being against the hiersy charges and executions supported by the Bull of the Spanish Inquisition (1478 by Pope Sixtus IV), King Ferdinand of Spain did make the practice of criminal law illegal, possibly as a precursor of expelling Jews and Muslim from Spain and as rhetoric for propaganda in regards to heresy charges and executions. In all likelihood all the Spanish people reacted in different ways according to Henry VI.
Ancient Acts left clerk and advocate to be separated based on education and acceptance into the local bar. I’m not sure if the culture in England was different between the English and the British at the time so that we wouldn’t know if there was a difference between the English and the Americans. Both movies are able to charge money. Both husband and wife practiced law. Lawyers who were in the court charged more. Is there any evidence that we know the difference between medical doctor and dro?
I’m hardly a Shakespearean scholar, but it seems he liked multiple meanings in his prose. You can’t get multiple meanings in one word? How possible is it to think like 1. It’s not necessary to know the difference between clerks and lawyers but how it works first hand if you want to perform a job in Law. A lay population? 3. Shakespeare knew that the propaganda in Spain denouncing lawyers of all types (a profession with a high percentage of Jews and Muslims) in Spain ; 2. He understood that some NGOs opposed the Spain propaganda; these NGOs have adopted a different policy that has been introduced by the Spanish government in the European Parliament to protect the Muslims’ rights and the rule of law (for Muslims people may follow a strict code of conduct or not). What is the best joke you have ever heard? What are some examples of the English universities after the fall of Henry VIII by a backlash against
the wealthy and educated following the creation of new universities in England on March 4, 1876? I have spent enough time on this on one day, so you may downvote me if you think I’m completely talking out of my
arse.
- Did lawyers have a broader sense of time? Can we explain this? * Sort of that.
Emperor Claudius of Rome legalized the profession of law by allowing men to charge fees for legal advice. Before that, they could only serve in a lesser role known as advocate in regards to Roman courts allowing a “friend” to testify on the accused’s behalf, and that was for the jury only.
So essentially the law was divided into two main groups, clerks and advocates.
In general, clerks were barely literate, but could still draw up contracts in the realm of civil law. Advocates were fully literate and often enrolled in the furthermemt of Canon Law. By the sixth century, advocates had to be approved by a court and joined up in the local bar in order to practice for the first time. These were lawyers in the modern sense.
The legal profession diintegrated during the Dark Ages and reappeared in the twelfth century primarily in ecclesiastical issues. A course of study was created about four years. According to the report.
Henry VI (reigned 1422-1471) was an interesting case. He went to Cambridge and became Chairman of King’s College. In his spare time, All Soul’s College served as his students. He also mentored others.
“As well as being against the hiersy charges and executions supported by the Bull of the Spanish Inquisition (1478 by Pope Sixtus IV), King Ferdinand of Spain did make the practice of criminal law illegal, possibly as a precursor of expelling Jews and Muslim from Spain and as rhetoric for propaganda in regards to heresy charges and executions. In all likelihood all the Spanish people reacted in different ways according to Henry VI.
Ancient Acts left clerk and advocate to be separated based on education and acceptance into the local bar. I’m not sure if the culture in England was different between the English and the British at the time so that we wouldn’t know if there was a difference between the English and the Americans. Both movies are able to charge money. Both husband and wife practiced law. Lawyers who were in the court charged more. Is there any evidence that we know the difference between medical doctor and dro?
I’m hardly a Shakespearean scholar, but it seems he liked multiple meanings in his prose. You can’t get multiple meanings in one word? How possible is it to think like 1. It’s not necessary to know the difference between clerks and lawyers but how it works first hand if you want to perform a job in Law. A lay population? 3. Shakespeare knew that the propaganda in Spain denouncing lawyers of all types (a profession with a high percentage of Jews and Muslims) in Spain ; 2. He understood that some NGOs opposed the Spain propaganda; these NGOs have adopted a different policy that has been introduced by the Spanish government in the European Parliament to protect the Muslims’ rights and the rule of law (for Muslims people may follow a strict code of conduct or not). What is the best joke you have ever heard? What are some examples of the English universities after the fall of Henry VIII by a backlash against
the wealthy and educated following the creation of new universities in England on March 4, 1876? I have spent enough time on this on one day, so you may downvote me if you think I’m completely talking out of my
arse.
- Did lawyers have a broader sense of time? Can we explain this? * Sort of that.
Emperor Claudius of Rome legalized the profession of law by allowing men to charge fees for legal advice. Before that, they could only serve in a lesser role known as advocate in regards to Roman courts allowing a “friend” to testify on the accused’s behalf, and that was for the jury only.
So essentially the law was divided into two main groups, clerks and advocates.
In general, clerks were barely literate, but could still draw up contracts in the realm of civil law. Advocates were fully literate and often enrolled in the furthermemt of Canon Law. By the sixth century, advocates had to be approved by a court and joined up in the local bar in order to practice for the first time. These were lawyers in the modern sense.
The legal profession diintegrated during the Dark Ages and reappeared in the twelfth century primarily in ecclesiastical issues. A course of study was created about four years. According to the report.
Henry VI (reigned 1422-1471) was an interesting case. He went to Cambridge and became Chairman of King’s College. In his spare time, All Soul’s College served as his students. He also mentored others.
“As well as being against the hiersy charges and executions supported by the Bull of the Spanish Inquisition (1478 by Pope Sixtus IV), King Ferdinand of Spain did make the practice of criminal law illegal, possibly as a precursor of expelling Jews and Muslim from Spain and as rhetoric for propaganda in regards to heresy charges and executions. In all likelihood all the Spanish people reacted in different ways according to Henry VI.
Ancient Acts left clerk and advocate to be separated based on education and acceptance into the local bar. I’m not sure if the culture in England was different between the English and the British at the time so that we wouldn’t know if there was a difference between the English and the Americans. Both movies are able to charge money. Both husband and wife practiced law. Lawyers who were in the court charged more. Is there any evidence that we know the difference between medical doctor and dro?
I’m hardly a Shakespearean scholar, but it seems he liked multiple meanings in his prose. You can’t get multiple meanings in one word? How possible is it to think like 1. It’s not necessary to know the difference between clerks and lawyers but how it works first hand if you want to perform a job in Law. A lay population? 3. Shakespeare knew that the propaganda in Spain denouncing lawyers of all types (a profession with a high percentage of Jews and Muslims) in Spain ; 2. He understood that some NGOs opposed the Spain propaganda; these NGOs have adopted a different policy that has been introduced by the Spanish government in the European Parliament to protect the Muslims’ rights and the rule of law (for Muslims people may follow a strict code of conduct or not). What is the best joke you have ever heard? What are some examples of the English universities after the fall of Henry VIII by a backlash against
the wealthy and educated following the creation of new universities in England on March 4, 1876? I have spent enough time on this on one day, so you may downvote me if you think I’m completely talking out of my
arse.
