In my opinion, calling them objective pronoun amounts to conflating the terminology with subjective or objective case. In any event, “subject” and “subject” would be used synonymously and simultaneously here, and likewise for “objective” and “object”.

I would have thought that personal pronouns are a subset of all pronouns, including I, me, you, she, her, we, us, them, who, anybody, somebody, while impersonal pronouns include it, what, something. Why do you think so? However, none of the usage notes I can find indicate that personal pronouns stand in for “grammatical persons” (I, you, him, she, them, them), as in first person singular, third person plural, etc. -while impersonal pronouns are like “One”.

Do all personal pronouns have the same meaning?

I recently looked through the Cambridge Grammar of the English Language and from what I remember, it uses the term “personal pronouns” to refer to not just the “core” pronoun “I, we, you, he, she, it, they” but also “one” and “there” (see the explanation mentioned in Elise Mignot’s paper ” Pragmatic and stylistic uses of personal pronoun one “; basically, the authors seem to use “can it appear in a tag question”

The word who is an example of an unpersonal pronoun. Who is classified either as a relational pronoun or as an interrogative pronoun depending on the context and usage. (I still haven’t learned all the criteria for distinguishing between these two uses of who).

Subjective, subject, object, subject,

object and object are examples of variable terms. In a way the language of Russian, German or Latin doesn’t really have a systematic distinction between one morphological case typically used for subjects and another often used for objects, the problem is that the German standard is much further developed than the standard in most other languages such as it is in German but English lacks the systematic distinctions between them.

There are only six pairs of “subjective” and “objective” forms, I/me, we/us, he/him, she/her, they/them, and to a lesser extent who/whom —and you can see that for about half of these, the two forms don’t even have any clear resemblance to one another.

Why do some people feel the need to use the terms “nominative” and “accusative” in English grammar?

What does the term “objective” mean? How does it differ from the word “subjective”? (The Wikipedia article on specific case seems to have been criticized for its subjective meaning but not for its non-negative meaning. This is to show the differences between the usage of the “standard” generic nominative and how it is used in English. “Subject

pronoun” and “object pronoun” are just variant terms.

Objective pronouns

But in other contexts, me, us, him, her, them behave differently. Seeing, see or smell, it is less obvious. If there’s more of them, we would rather be of a different kind. ( *”They helped me” is not grammatical; it has to be “They helped me”), whereas the form whom is optional as the direct object of a verb (“Who did they help?” is grammatical; “Whom did they help?” is not required).

Why can’t we call whoever as the predicative complement of a finite copular verb with whom? “) whereas it is grammatical to use me, us, him, her and them predicatively (” It was me

“).