What part of speech is the be + verb here? Why are these sentences tense?
I shall have him killed. Lie to me, you love me.
Why is Norma being stoned for her adultery?
What are constructions be +verb called, grammatically? How are the above sentences extremely adjectival in nature, more so than I shall
have him killed?
She will be stoned for infidelity.
Is this true then? And, are two couplets of sentences in the exact same future tense?
What is the difference between a cat and a dog and how they have a “nice” relationship?
Is the word Copula used for a connecting word, in particular a form of the verb be connecting a subject and complement.
The construction with have (and also with make) is usually referred to as a causal construction. Then be + verb is usually referred to simply as a passive infinitive. Why it isn’t usually necessary to invent a special term for infinitives, passive or otherwise, in causal constructions?
As a side issue, it’s worth noting that if you use make, an infinitive for the infinitive is introduced by passive while not when it’s active. Why are the sentnces below marked with (*) ungrammatical?
The man was crying. *I made him cry.
*She was made cry an cry. Is he still crying? (He was made cry because his mom does not want her to cry)
I am a child and I was made to cry.
However, even in this case, there isn’t usually a special term for the infinitive: it’s just a (passive or active) infinitive.
